Talk:Moro 8:1-30

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Can anyone help me out here? When I wrote the following:

The fact that Mormon chooses to take this question to the Lord indicates that in at least some sense the question of whether to baptize children was at the time an open question for Mormon--a question for which it made sense to seek revelation. But how could it be an open question, if as we see in verse 14, anyone who believes such a doctrine must go to Hell? This question will be addressed in the commentary between here and verse 14.

I know I had something in mind. But now I can't remember what it was. How can it be that Mormon condemns so harshly those who believe that infant children need baptism but himself needed to ask the Lord to be sure whether or not they did? --Matthew Faulconer 07:54, 8 Oct 2006 (UTC)

The following question was originally posted to the commentary page. I moved it here since it addresses a subject not directly related to the text. --Matthew Faulconer 15:04, 3 Jan 2006 (UTC)

  • Children don't need to be baptized because they are without sin. Does this also mean that they are exempt from the other ordinances of the gospel like eternal marriage?