Talk:Mark 2:1-3:6

2:6-10

Hi Eric, What do you think of changing the second bullet point under exegesis to the following?

• Note that verse 9 doesn't ask the question whether it is easier forgive sins or heal someone. Instead, it asks which of the two is easier to say. The following two verse go on to say that the Jesus healed the man with palsy so that the scribes would know that Jesus had power to forgive sins. The implied answer then to Jesus's question is that it is easier to say someone's sins are forgiven (how would someone prove you wrong) than it is to say they are healed.

To me that makes more sense--otherwise I don't see the connection between the question Jesus asks and the conclusion he asks them to draw from it "so that they know he has power to forgive sins." Even so I don't think Jesus is saying that anyone who can heal someone can also forgive their sins as well, but I think his point was to show them that he has real power. In so doing he gave them sufficient witness that if he says he can forgive sins, he can.

--Matthew Faulconer 07:36, 1 Aug 2005 (CEST)

Your point is well-taken and insightful. I'll go with it. Eric 22:57, 2 Aug 2005 (CEST)

Hi Rob, I read through both of the links. I found them very interesting. However, in the summary I didn't find anything that suggestion that "son of man" was a title for Jehovah in the Old Testament. The second one spoke to the meaning of "son of man" but I didn't see any suggestion in it that this was a name for Jehovah in the Old Testament pre 600BC. Nevertheless, that article does suggest that this phrase was used in Enoch (about which it says the text "cannot be dated (or even read) with any certainty") to refer to one who has become an angel. Did I miss something? or is Barker more explicit on this point in another article you didn't link to?

--Matthew Faulconer 04:45, 2 Aug 2005 (CEST)

Moving very quickly through this stuff...I think there are better arguments in her books, but will have to look for it. Rob Fergus 02:23, 4 Aug 2005 (CEST)