Moses 1:6-10
From Feast upon the Word (http://feastupontheword.org). Copyright, Feast upon the Word.
The Pearl of Great Price > The Book of Moses > Chapter 1
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Questions
Verse 6
- This verse suggests that God the Father is speaking to Moses, since he refers to "mine Only Begotten". However, Jesus Christ has stated that he was the God of Abraham (John 8:58), and gave the law to Israel (3 Ne 15:5). Who is talking to Moses, God the Father, or Jehovah? Does it matter?
- Why does God tell Moses that Moses is in the similitude of the Only Begotten? In what way or ways is he in that similitude? Why does God say that the Only Begotten is and shall be the Savior? God says that the Only Begotten is and will be the Savior because he is full of grace and truth. How can we explain that? What does it mean to be full of grace and truth? Why does being full of them make one the Savior?
- Why does the Father add “but there is no God beside me” immediately after telling Moses of the Savior?
- What does it mean to say that all things are present? What does it mean for something to be present? The last clause of the verse says that Father’s knowledge makes all things present to him. To say that knowledge is what makes things present is an unusual way to speak. What can we make of that? Does it suggest anything about how things are present before God?
Verse 7
- What is the “one thing” that God shows Moses? Why does he explain what he shows Moses by saying, “For thou art in the world”?
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The 'one thing' that God shew to Moses was the Mission and Sacrifice of Jesus Christ; event that would occur in the distant future. And showed to Moses because he 'was in the world' in which such event will take place. [Joh@aci.on.ca]
Verse 8
- The word “end” can mean “final point” and it can also mean “purpose.” Which meaning do you think is used here when the scripture says that Moses beheld the ends of the world? The meaning here is 'final point' Moses was able to see the end of the earth and its civilization beyond the Second Coming of the Lord. [joh@aci.on.ca]
Verse 9
- What does it mean to say that Moses was left to himself?
A natural man, in other words, God glory was withdrew from him and Moses was left only with the power(stramgth) of a human man [joh@aci.on.ca]
Verse 10
- What does Moses mean when, having had this vision of the ends of the world and all the children of men, he says, “Now, for this cause I know that man is nothing, which thing I never had supposed”?
Lexical notes
Verse 6
- Full of grace and truth: The phrase "grace and truth" in the scriptures is only used to describe God (the Father or the Son). Grace and truth are set up in contrast to the law which was given by Moses in John 1:17.
Exegesis
Verse 6
But there is no God beside me. Although it seems the Father and the Son are being described here as distinct personages, perhaps God is concurrently making it clear that the Father and the Son are one God, perhaps in anticipation of the problems the children of Israel would face in worshiping other gods (e.g. Ex 32:1-6).
Verse 7
One thing. If the "one thing" that God shows Moses is the world that Moses is in, then this stands in contrast to all the works of God (v. 5), and in contrast to the numberless worlds mentioned in verse 33. The "one thing" also clarifies "the workmanship" that God promises to show in verse 4. By focusing on "one thing" and later clarifying "for thou art in the world," the work that God says he has for Moses (in v. 6) may be alluded to: rather than showing Moses other things, God will focus on the "one thing" that is most needful (cf. Luke 10:42), namely this world that Moses is reminded (later in v. 7) that he is in. This shift from the many works of God ("works without end" in v. 4; "all my works" in v. 5; "all things" in v. 6) to "one thing" seems also to function as a means of setting up the epiphany that Moses has in verse 10 that "man is nothing." By getting only a glimpse of the many glorious works of God, Moses seems to be overwhelmed in verse 9 and then, when he comes to, Moses then realizes the (relative?) nothingness of man in (at least) a way that he had never before supposed.
My son. The addition of the phrase "my son" may be a way of reassuring Moses that the reason Moses will be shown only one thing, is not because God is not a loving father or that Moses is an ontologically inferior being to God, but rather because Moses has a work to do (v. 6) and this work pertains to the world that Moses is in.
For thou art in the world. After stating that God has a work for Moses (v. 6) and that God will only show Moses "one thing," an additional phrase of seeming explanation is added: "for thou art in the world." This may be giving an explanation for why God is not revealing things about other worlds to Moses. It may also be emphasizing the work mentioned in verse 6 that Moses has to perform.
Related links
Verse 6
- See more on Jesus Christ as Jehovah and Father here on RobertC's subpage.
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