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Verses 30-31

• In speaking of consecrating of our substance “with a covenant and a deed which cannot be broken,” verse 30 clearly has reference to the Law of Consecration, which we are not presently under obligation to practice in the way it was to be practiced in the nineteenth century. But does this verse have a meaning for us anyway?
• What does the word "consecrate" mean?
• How do we consecrate something?
• How do we consecrate of our properties to support the poor?
• To whom do we make such consecrations?

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Verse 31

• See the questions for verse 30.

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Verse 42

• If this verse doesn’t refer to the idle poor (see the lexical notes), to whom does it refer? In the early nineteenth century and in earlier times, what kinds of people would have been idle? How might we “translate” the meaning of this scripture for our own understanding and circumstances? (To see a warning to the poor, see D&C 56:17.)

Lexical notes

Verse 42

According to the 1828 Websters, "idle" meant "unemployed" and "unoccupied with business" as well as "slothful." In fact, "slothful" is the second definition and the other meanings are first.

Exegesis

Verse 44

In context, this verse, like the one before it (and the end of verse 52), is specifically explaining how the church should deal with those who believe and are sick but have not faith to be healed. It is for them that the elders of the church are to be called. Why isn't this direction to call the elders given for all who are sick? It may be that these verses suggest that "all the sick" and "the sick without faith to be healed" are really the same group because everyone with faith is already healed. But is that right--does everyone with faith get healed?

When much the same thing is repeated in verse 48 an additional caveat is added "and is not appointed unto death." This possibility is then recognized--that one may have faith, but be sick because one is appointed unto death. But what of those who are sick, but not with something that leads to death? Is this verse suggesting that all of them are sick because they lack the faith to be healed?

Given how verse 44 ends, we might assume that such sick people aren't at issue. That what is under discussion are those with grave sicknesses--the type where we would expect one to die and this is why the end of verse 44 ends by talking about whether the person lives or dies--not about whether they are healed.

Verses 49-53, however, suggest this isn't so. All of the sicknesses used as examples are specifically not the type we would expect someone to die from (being blind, being deaf, being lame). What then do we make of the end of verse 44, the discussion of living and dying rather than of being healed or not? One interpretation of this is that healing is not spoken of because, in the previous verse, it has already been established that this is a group of people who have not faith to be healed. The problem with this interpretation is that it leaves no place for healing by the laying on of hands. It sees people as either faithful and therefore already healed with no need to call the elders or faithless and beyond hope of being healed. This interpretation goes against both other scriptures and common experience which suggests that healing is provided through the laying on of hands.

In any case, what is clear from the ending of verse 44, is that the important point in this context isn't that the elders are called to heal (though they may do that) but rather that they are called to seal the sick to Christ. Or, to put it another way, to re-affirm the sick's commitment to Christ through prayer and the laying on of hands. As is made clear here, verses 45-47 and 52, this is more important than whether or not one is healed.

We might see these verses as providing some answers to the questions that arise from the facts that on the one hand we have scriptures which promise that those who ask with faith will receive, but on the other hand we see so many good people who ask to be healed but remain sick. In this context these verses a) reaffirm the truth of the statement generally that they would be healed with sufficient faith b) add an additional caveat that some are appointed unto death c) reassure us that not having faith to be healed doesn't mean that one can't become Christ's sons d) remind us that we have a responsibility to care for those who are sick.

Verse 45

The Lord makes it clear that it is appropriate that we weep for them that die. It is natural that we weep for those who we love and God makes it clear that we are to love. The command here is to love so much that we weep when a friend dies.

Interestingly we are specifically told to weep especially for "those that have not hope of a glorious resurrection." What does this criteria mean?

The meaning changes depending on whether we take the wording "those that have not" to suggest (a) that the person who died, themselves, didn't have hope of a glorious resurrection, or whether we think it means (b) the person who died isn't justified in hoping for a glorious resurrection.

(a) is interesting in its emphasis on someone's own hope. We presume that we are to mourn more for those who do not hope for a glorious resurrection than those who do because, in each case, their lack of hope is actually correct. In contrast, we might compare this with Matt 25:31-46 which talks specifically about those who misjudge their approaching judgment. (b) is also interesting because it assumes we are in a position to judge whether someone has any hope of a a glorious resurrection.

It also isn't clear how this verse's interpretation should be influenced by the fact that the Lord will provide a way to accept the gospel to all after death who didn't have a chance to receive it in this life.

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Verse 56

• What scriptures are appointed to be given to the saints? Is this referring to the continuing revelations of Joseph Smith? The sealed portion of the Book of Mormon? If we never ask for the sealed portion of the Book of Mormon, will the church ever receive it?

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Verses 74-77

These verses begin by addressing the topic of the person who puts away their companion. We might think of this as divorce but it is different than our langauge of divorce in two ways. First, it may not entail a legal divorce, it could be less formal--something like what we would call separation. Second, the language of "putting away" identifies an instigator. In contrast the language of divorce can be applied without identifying any person as an instigator. Finally the language of putting away may suggest (we don't know please edit this text if you do) something different than "leaving a companion" (the language used in verse 75).

The purpose of verse 74 is to carve out an exception for not casting out a person who puts away their spouse. Given that the topic of the verse is for carving out a reason not to cast such a person out, the assumption is that by default such a person is to be cast out. The exception the Lord gives here is when the person's spouse commits fornication. (Adultery could have just as easily have been substituted for fornication in verse 74 without changing the meaning.)

Next verse 75 deals with a sort of opposite case--the person who leaves their spouse to live with a new companion. Such a person is to be cast out. The possibility of repentance and a second chance (as dicussed for adulterers in verse 24 above) isn't given because the person is living with someone they aren't married to. This is an opposite case because it is the adulterer who is also breaking up the marriage. In contrast in verse 74 it is the person who was cheated on, who breaks it up.

Verse 76 and 77 tell the Church to be careful not to receive someone who has left their family to commit adultery and also adds a further caveat "if they are married." This caveat could be interpetted in two ways and both may be valid. It may be that the Lord here is talking about essentially the same case outlined in verse 75 but who never was married to their first companion. Alternatively it may be that an exception is being carved out for the person who did leave their family to live with someone else but afterwards went through the process of formally ending the first marriage.

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Verse 81

• Law of God: What does it mean to "be dealt with according to the law of God" here?

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