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The New Testament > 1 John > Chapter 2

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Lexical notes

• The Greek word translated in verse 2 as "propitiation" (hilasmos) is used only one other time in the New Testament (in 1 John 4:10), although a related word also is used in Romans 3:25 (translated as "propitiation") and in Hebrews 9:5, where it is translated as "mercyseat." The word has the sense of something that is done to satsify the demands of God. Another technical translation sometimes used is "expiation"; some modern translations use the term "atoning sacrifice."

Exegesis

Verse 1

“…My little children…” The tone and style of the section change in this passage. The author switches to the first person singular. In 1:6-10 the author spoke as one of the members of the community. Now he speaks to them as a leader. The members of the church are referred to as “children” in the Johannine epistles (cf. 2 John 1, 4, 13). Despite the changes this passage introduces, the text continues on the same theme of sin. “…I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin…” Here the author declares his purpose in writing the previous section. At the end of the prologue in 1:4, the author explained that he wrote that so that his joy would be full. Now, he writes about sin to encourage his audience to repent and live righteously.

“…But if anyone does sin…” Here the author continues to acknowledge the possibility and inevitability of sin. He encourages his audience not to sin, but does not discourage them by setting an impossible standard.

“… we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous…” The author returns to being a common member of the community by shifting back to the first person plural. The word for advocate (parakletos) is the same word used in the Gospel of John to describe the Spirit. In the Gospel it is often translated as “Comforter,” but it has the same meaning. The meaning of the term is hard to capture in translation. Other suggestions have been “intercessor,” or “exhorter.” Here, Jesus Christ is identified as a Paraclete. This shows that at this point the term had not become a technical term to describe only the Spirit. Instead, it was an adjectival title. In the Gospel, the Paraclete is supposed to replace Jesus after his death. Indeed, the Spirit is called “another Paraclete,” which suggests that the title belonged to Jesus as well (14:16-7). In the Gospel the Paraclete teaches and testifies. The primary purpose of the Paraclete in 1 John is to intercede for the repentant sinner as a high priest. To call him “righteous” emphasizes his purity for the sacrifice.

Verse 2

“… and he is the atoning sacrifice for our sins…” Jesus is both the advocate (parakletos) and atoning sacrifice (hilasmos) on behalf of the sinner. The high priestly advocate is also the sacrifice himself. The KJV translations the Greek word hilasmos as “propitiation.” There is much debate about the precise meaning of this word. Does it mean that the offended party (in this case, God) is placated by the substitute suffering of Jesus (propitiation)? Or, does it mean that the offender is cleansed from what was offensive in the first place (expiation)? Interpretation has tended toward to former.

“…and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world…” Here, the author insists that the atonement is not just for believers or even for the community alone. The efficacy of the atonement applies to the entire world. Despite the heavy-handed condemnations of the opponents, 1 John displays here a particular sensitivity to the breadth of the Gospel message. Jesus is called the “Savior of the world” (4:14).

Verse 3 “Now by this we may be sure that we know him, if we obey his commandments…” The antecedent of “him” is not made explicit, but the object of all the previous statements has been God. The discussion of the knowledge of God does not necessarily imply a critique against gnosis. Indeed, 1 John acknowledges the possibility of the knowledge of God in this passage. Knowledge and fellowship from the previous section are intertwined. Just as it is impossible to have fellowship with God with sin (1:6), so it is impossible to know God without obeying the commandments.

In the Gospel of John, Jesus makes a very similar statement. He explains, “If you love me, keep my commandments” (14:15). Here, the proof of one’s love is keeping the commandments. The same proof also applies to knowledge of God. This also continues the connections to the prologue in the Gospel, which claims of Jesus that “the world did not know him” (1:10). Does this refer to cognitive knowledge (French: savoir) or interpersonal knowing (French: connaitre)? In Greek, as in English, the distinction is made in the context of the use of the word. Here, it likely refers to the interpersonal knowledge of God since it is continuing the theme of fellowship. It connects this knowledge to living a certain way of life in which God becomes manifest. The commandment that is emphasized in this section regards love for one another.

Verse 4

“…Whoever says, ‘I have come to know him,’ but does not obey his commandments, is a liar, and in such a person the truth does not exist…” This section parallels the previous one with three erroneous statements that the author will refute. This is the first of three statements in this section that 1 John will refute. The others are “I abide in him,” and “I am in the light.” It closely parallels 1:6 (see comment). Are these the slogans of the opponents? 1 John may be countering the spiritual claims of his adversaries by pointing out their flaws. On the other hand, as in the previous section, he may be attempting to humble his own congregation in order to keep them from boasting about their own spirituality. The rhetorical effect is to persuade his hearers to back up claims to spirituality with action.

Verse 5

“…but whoever obeys his word…” The “word” (logos) in this passage clearly refers to the message of God, and not the divine pre-existent Word of the Prologue in the Gospel. The “word” and the commandments are linked in this section.

“…truly in this person the love of God has reached perfection…” The “love of God” is mentioned here for the first time in the epistle. Again, the theme of interiority is present here as well. This type of love exists within the person who obeys the commandments. The specific word for “love” used here is the Greek agapē. Twenty percent of all of the uses of this word and those related to it in the entire New Testament appear in the Johannine epistles. This particular word can be distinguished from other Greek words for “love,” such as eros, the root of the English “erotic.” Brown defines this form of love: “Agapē is not a love originating in the human heart and reaching out to possess noble goods needed for perfection; it is a spontaneous, unmerited, creative love flowing from God to the Christian, and from the Christian to a fellow Christian.”

To what does the “love of God” refer? Is it our love for God, or the love that God has for us, or does God grant the believer the ability to love other people? This debate turns on whether or not the genitive is objective or subjective, which is decided only by interpretation. All of the options are plausible. Whichever it is, it is promised to reach fulfillment or perfection.

“…By this we may be sure that we are in him…” Like in 2:3, 1 John offers a proof for a certain spiritual claim. The theme of being “in” God is raised here.

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