Difference between revisions of "Matt 7:1-5"
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== Exegesis == | == Exegesis == | ||
| + | ===Verse 2=== | ||
| + | The idea that we will be judged with the same standard which we apply to others would mean that God may judge us with a faulty standard if we judge others with a faulty standard. Since clearly God cannot judge with a faulty standard something else must be going on here. Or to state the problem using a specific example...imagine a person who lives a terrible life of evil, when they see evil, they judge it as good (see [[Moro 7:14]]-18). Would God judge such a person as good by applying the same principle of judgement they used (i.e. evil is good) to judge them? Surely not. | ||
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| + | The interpretation that makes more sense of these verses is to read judgment as meaning something more like our word ''condemnation'' making the meaning of the verse something like: condemn not others that ye be not condemned. | ||
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===Verse 3=== | ===Verse 3=== | ||
Compare the hyperbole of this verse with that in [[Matt 5:29]]. | Compare the hyperbole of this verse with that in [[Matt 5:29]]. | ||
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== Related links == | == Related links == | ||
Revision as of 12:20, 3 January 2009
The New Testament > Matthew > Chapter 7
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Contents
Questions
Verse 1
- JST. In the Joseph Smith translation of the Bible, this verse contains the phrase "Judge not unrighteously, that ye be not judged: but judge righteous judgment." What is righteous judgment? (Notice however that there is no change in 3 Ne 14:1.)
- Showing mercy and not judging. In the preceding chapter, Jesus has advocated showing mercy and being reconciled to our brother. How does not judging (unrightouesly) relate to these previous teachings?
Lexical notes
- Click the edit link above and to the right to add lexical notes
Exegesis
Verse 2
The idea that we will be judged with the same standard which we apply to others would mean that God may judge us with a faulty standard if we judge others with a faulty standard. Since clearly God cannot judge with a faulty standard something else must be going on here. Or to state the problem using a specific example...imagine a person who lives a terrible life of evil, when they see evil, they judge it as good (see Moro 7:14-18). Would God judge such a person as good by applying the same principle of judgement they used (i.e. evil is good) to judge them? Surely not.
The interpretation that makes more sense of these verses is to read judgment as meaning something more like our word condemnation making the meaning of the verse something like: condemn not others that ye be not condemned.
Verse 3
Compare the hyperbole of this verse with that in Matt 5:29.
Related links
Verse 2
- See BrianJ's post "The Lord will judge unrighteously?" at the Feast blog.
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