Difference between revisions of "D&C 128:6-18"
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== Exegesis == | == Exegesis == | ||
===Verse 12=== | ===Verse 12=== | ||
| − | The wording of this verse | + | The wording of this verse might be understood to suggest that "the ordinance of baptism for the dead" somehow existed before the "ordinance of baptism by water" for the living, since it claims that the latter was "instituted to form a relationship" with the--therefore--previously existing former. This claim, however, if taken literally, suggests a radical revision of thinking concerning baptism, and especially concerning the temple: what is baptism, if this is true? |
== Related links == | == Related links == | ||
Revision as of 03:29, 30 October 2006
Doctrine & Covenants > Section 128
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Questions
Verse 12
- What might the Lord mean when he says that the ordinance of baptism by water was instituted to "form a relationship" with the ordinance of baptism for the dead?
- Why might such a relationship have been desirable?
- Is there any suggestion that one ordinance might have been "instituted before the other"?
Lexical notes
- Click the edit link above and to the right to add lexical notes
Exegesis
Verse 12
The wording of this verse might be understood to suggest that "the ordinance of baptism for the dead" somehow existed before the "ordinance of baptism by water" for the living, since it claims that the latter was "instituted to form a relationship" with the--therefore--previously existing former. This claim, however, if taken literally, suggests a radical revision of thinking concerning baptism, and especially concerning the temple: what is baptism, if this is true?
Related links
- Click the edit link above and to the right to add related links
| Previous (D&C 128:6-10) | Next (D&C 128:16-20) |
