2 Ne 10:1-25
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The relationship of Chapter 10 to the rest of Chapters 6-10 is discussed at Chapters 6-10.
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- 2 Ne 10:3: Christ = Messiah "Christ" is the Greek equivalent of "Messiah"--a term that Nephi and Jacob use earlier in the text. The implications are that (1) the angel spoke the Greek term, (2) Jacob was unfamiliar with the term, but recognized that it referred to the Messiah, (3) Jacob incorrectly inferred that the new term must be the Messiah's name, or (4) Joseph Smith translated the term Christ because this was commonly used in the religious language of his time and in the KJV Bible.
- 2 Ne 10:3: Behooveth our God. In the v. 3 phrase "behooveth our God", God seems to refer to Christ--that is, it is necessary that Christ is crucified among the Jews. This is consistent with the end of v. 3 phraseology "there is none other nation on earth that would crucify their God." An alternate reading would be to interpret God as Heavenly Father, emphasizing that is necessary for the Father to allow his son be crucified in order to redeem mankind.
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- 2 Ne 10:1: How does this verse explain the scattering of Israel, including the scattering of Lehi’s family? Who were the pastors (shepherds) of the Israelites? (Compare Ezekiel 34:1-10.)
- 2 Ne 10:2: What does Jacob mean when he says the promises that have been made are promises according to the flesh?
- 2 Ne 10:3: How does the crucifixtion "behooveth our God"?
- 2 Ne 10:3ff: The word “Christ” is a title, not a name. Why does Jacob speak of it as a name? Why does Jacob repeat once again the prophecy of Christ’s coming and death? Why does he feel the need to tell the Nephites of this over and over when they aren’t going to have part in it? Is there anything here that they can apply to themselves? How?
- 2 Ne 10:6: Are these verses teaching that the Jews will suffer because they killed Christ?
- 2 Ne 10:7: This verse states that when the Jews believe in Christ "they shall be restored in the flesh." Since the Jews still do not recognize that Jesus is the Messiah, should we interpret the modern gathering of Jews to the State of Israel as partial fulfillment of this prophecy, or as something else?
- 2 Ne 10:6-7: Gathering of the Jews. In reading verses 6-7, it appears that the Jews would be scattered (vs. 6; I think this has happened) and gathered and restored in the flesh to the lands of their inheritance (Israel?) "when the day cometh that they shall believe in me, that I am Christ" (verse 7). The Jews have begun to gather to Israel without, I think, the above condition being met. Am I missing something? Does anyone have insights into these verses/this chapter?
- Response: Although not directly supported by the text, I think the conflict the Jews are facing over the land of Israel may eventually subside and that it may be correlated with their acceptance of Christ as the Messiah (probably at his second coming?).
- 2 Ne 10:6: Why have the Jews suffered. he question in verse 6 made me realize something for the first time. It says the Jews will suffer because of their iniquities, not because they crucified Christ. In verse 5 there's a link between the Jews' iniquities and their crucifying of Christ, but the link between the Jews' suffering and their crucifying of Christ only indirect, not direct. So did the Jews suffer because of their iniquity (and their crucifying of Christ was simply a by-product of their iniquity), or because they crucified Christ? One reason I believe the distinction is important is interesting is because saying they suffered because of their iniquity (and not directly b/c they crucified Christ) makes God seem less vindictive.
- 2 Ne 10:20-23: How do these verses help us understand why Jacob is talking about Christ's birth and death so much (cf. 2 Ne 10:3ff)? How? Why would knowing that our knowledge is from God mean that we ought not to hang down our heads? (Compare this to 2 Ne 4:26ff.) In v. 21, does Jacob assume that he is on an island? Why does Jacob connect his teaching to what his father taught (compare v. 23 with 2 Ne 2:27-29)?
- 2 Ne 10:20: Hang down our heads. Is this per chance an attempt to describe symptoms of depression?
- 2 Ne 10:24: What does Jacob mean when he says that it is only in and through the grace of God that we are saved after we are reconciled? How have we seen that explained in previous and later chapters? (Compare 2 Ne 25:23.)
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