John 1 All

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Summary

This section should be very brief. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Discussion

This section is for detailed discussion such as the meaning of a symbol, how a doctrinal point is developed throughout a passage, or insights that can be further developed in the future. Contributions may range from polished paragraphs down to a single bullet point. The focus, however, should always be on understanding the scriptural text consistent with LDS doctrine. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:1-18. It appears that John has used an existing hymn to open his gospel, inserting commentary at a few points in the hymn. Verse 1 of the hymn: verses 1-2; verse 2 of the hymn: verses 3-5; verse 3 of the hymn: verses 10-12; Verse 4 of the hymn, verse 14; verse 5 of the hymn, verse 16. The other verses (6-9, the last part of 12, 13, 15, 17, and 18) are probably commentary on the hymn.

• John 1:1-2. The Greek word translated "beginning" has a variety of meanings. For example, it can mean "first in time," "ultimate principle," "ruler," or "norm." Thus, a person who spoke Greek would hear not only the meaning we get in the translation ("In the beginning was the word"), but also the connotations created by these other meanings. Those connotations would have influenced how a person reading John when it was first written would understand the passage. The implication of those connotations would be that Christ is the ultimate principle, standard, or ruler, a ruler who has existed, in the presence of God, from the beginning.

The Greek word translated "Word" is logos. It has two broad meanings: (1) the explanation or revelation of something (including meanings like "account," "speech," "proportion," "relation," "measure," and "mind"), and, (2) the most essential element of things, the things that makes every other thing intelligible. (The latter broad meaning gives rise to specific meanings like "revelation," "law," "truth," "knowledge," "virtue," "nature," and "spirit.") The root of the word logos is the verb legein, "to gather."

Though John writes in Greek and seems to be addressing a primarily Greek audience, he is probably also depending on the Old Testament use of the word "word." (See the New Testament footnotes for more information.) For us, given the way English works, a word is a sign of a thing, a concept. But in the Old Testament, God’s word refers more to an event or a deed than it does to a concept. A word is what does something. As a result, in the Old Testament, "word" usually refers to prophetic revelation and, often, specifically to the Mosaic Law. It refers specifically to the giving of the revelation rather than to its content. In line with this, "word" also can refer to the word spoken to create something, as in Genesis 1:1. (We can see this use of word in Ezekiel 37:4 and Jacob 4:9, and, by implication, in Isaiah 40:26.)

The phrase, "the Word was with God," can literally be translated "the Word was before ['in front of,' 'in the presence of,' or even 'toward'] God."

The order of the words in the Greek exhibit a literary form known as Climax or Gradation:

 In the beginning was 
   the Word: and 
   the Word was with 
     God: and 
     God
       the Word was, and
       the same [word] was in the beginning with God.

• John 1:4-5. Notice that the verse in verse 4 are in the past tense and the last verb in verse 5 ("did not comprehend") is also in the past tense, but the first verb in verse 5 ("shines") is in the present tense.

The Climax form is used again:

 In Him was
   life; and the
   life was the
     light of men. And the
     light shineth in
       darkness; and the 
       darkness comprehended it not.

• John 1:4-5. In the Old Testament, the word "light" usually refers to experienced brightness; it refers to experience rather than to a thing or a state. Therefore, the word "light" also refers to salvation, our experience of being in the right relation with God or our experience of our relation with God made right. God is our light (Psalms 27:1): he enlightens us by making our salvation possible (Psalms 97:11). The contrast of light and dark is not as important to the Old Testament (or to the B.C. part of the Book of Mormon) as it is to John; in making that contrast John seems to introduce an essentially new element. In the Gospel of John, light stands at least for revelation (see John 12:36) and, therefore, also for the Revealer (John 1:5?, 8:12, 9:5, and 12:46).

• John 1:5: Comprehended. The Greek word katelaben means "to seize" (possibly with one's mind), "to make one’s own," or "to overcome." (See the NT footnotes and the NET footnotes.) The NRSV rendering is "And the light shines in darkness, and the darkness did not overcome it."

• John 1:11: His own. See this post by Kevin Barney at the Feast blog for an analysis of the underlying Greek text here. The first occurrence of idios ("his own") is neutral in gender whereas the second is masculine. Here are a list of alternate translations. The NRSV rendering is: "He came to what was his own, and his own people did not accept him."

• John 1:12: Receive. Another translation of the Greek word translated "receive" is "accept."

• John 1:14: Grace. The word translated "grace" could also be translated "mercy." The phrase "grace and truth" seems to imitate a pair of characteristics used to describe God in the Old Testament: his loving-kindness (esed) and his faithfulness in keeping his covenants (‘emet). Exodus 34:6 is representative of many Old Testament scriptures that mention these attributes of God, probably the most important of the divine attributes discussed in the Old Testament. (See also Psalms 25:10, 61:7, 86:15; and Proverbs 20:28.) This early hymn explicitly identifies Christ with the God of the Old Testament.

• John 1:14: Truth. The word translated "truth" means truth, but it originally meant "what is unconcealed" or "what is revealed" (though by the time of Christ that origin had probably long been forgotten).

• John 1:14. Structurally, this verse repeats verse 1. Like verse one it testifies of Christ’s existence, of his relation to the Father, and of his attributes: "the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us"—he exists; "we beheld his glory, the glory of the unique Son of the Father"—his relation to the Father; full of grace and love—his attributes.

Though "only begotten" is an accurate translation, that translation changes the emphasis of the original. The Greek emphasizes the uniqueness of the Son. Literally, this says "the glory of a singular Son coming from the Father."

Unanswered questions

This section is for questions along the lines of "I still don't understand ..." Please do not be shy. The point of these questions is to identify things that still need to be addressed on this page. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Prompts for life application

This section is for prompts that suggest ways in which a passage can influence a person's life. Prompts may be appropriate either for private self reflection or for a class discussion. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Prompts for further study

This section is for prompts that invite us to think about a passage more deeply or in a new way. These are not necessarily questions that beg for answers, but rather prompts along the lines of "Have you ever thought about ..." Prompts are most helpful when they are developed individually, thoughtfully, and with enough background information to clearly indicate a particular direction for further study or thought. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:1. Why does John begin his testimony of Christ’s ministry with the same words we find at the beginning of Genesis (Genesis 1:1), "In the beginning . . ."? Why does John begin his book by referring to the beginning rather than to the birth of Christ? Is he concerned with the creation itself or with something else? If the latter, what?

• John 1:1. Why is Christ called "the Word"? How is Christ the word of the Old Testament? What does it mean to say that he is?

• John 1:1. What does it mean to say that Christ was with the Father in the beginning? What does it mean to be in the presence of God? In what sense might Christ have been "toward" the Father? (Moses 4:1-2 seems relevant here.)

• John 1:2. This verse repeats the content of verse 1. Why?

• John 1:3. To what is the verse referring when it says that "all things" were made by Christ? Is it referring only to the world and the objects in the world?

• John 1:4. What does it mean to say that life was in the Word? Physical life? Spiritual life? When did the physical creation occur? When did the spiritual creation, the spiritual life, with which John is concerned occur? What is the connection of this verse to the previous verse? In other words, what does the meaning of this verse have to do with that of verse 3? A more literal translation of the second half of the verse might be, "and this life was the light of human beings." To what does "this life" refer? What does the last half of the verse mean?

• John 1:5. What does it mean to say that the light shines in darkness? What does it mean to say that the darkness did not comprehend the light?

• John 1:6-9. Why does John think that it is important to respond to verses 1 through 5 by talking about John the Baptist? Can you explain what in the first five verses might have prompted him to interject this discussion of John the Baptist? Why was/is the testimony of verses 8-9 important?

• John 1:13. What does this verse tell us about how we come to have the power to become the children of God? What does it mean to say that those who believe on God are not born of blood? That they are not born of the will of the flesh? That they are not born of the will of man? What does it mean to be born of God? In the Old Testament flesh often refers to human weakness, as in Isaiah 40:6. Blood in the Old Testament is usually associated with death. Might John have those associations in mind? If so, how does that help us understand this verse? Some have suggested that "blood" means "natural generation," that "flesh" means "natural desires, such as the desire to have children," and that "the will of man" means "the human ability to choose." Does that help give insight into a possible meaning of this verse?

• John 1:14. How do you think that those of a Greek culture, including educated Jews, would have responded to this announcement: God was made flesh and dwelt among human beings? How would Greek and Roman intellectuals have responded?

• John 1:14. What does it mean to say that Jesus is full of grace? That he is full of truth?

• John 1:15. Just as John began his commentary on this hymn by talking about John the Baptist, he ends by talking about John the Baptist. Why? Why was John the Baptist so important to explaining the mission of Jesus? (Compare Mark 1:7 and Matthew 3:11.)

• John 1:16: Grace for grace. What does "grace for grace" mean? Does it mean "one kind of grace replacing another," perhaps the expression of divine mercy (esed—loving-kindness) in the Mosaic covenant replaced by its expression in the new covenant? Does it mean that "grace is piled upon grace," indicting an abundance of fullness? Or, does it mean "grace in return for grace"? Look at the other places where this phrase occurs in scripture and see whether those help you understand better the meaning of the phrase (Helaman 12:24; D&C 93:12 and 20). Do we see the same teaching in Doctrine and Covenants 84:38?

• John 1:17. What is the contrast between the law, on the one hand, and grace and truth, on the other? How have we received the fulness and what is the fulness mentioned in verse 16? How does this verse tell us to understand "grace for grace" in verse 16?

• John 1:18. How did Joseph Smith clarify the meaning of this verse? How does this verse help us understand the meaning of the hymn? Specifically, how does it help us understand verse 16?

Resources

This section is for listing links and print resources, including those that are also cited elsewhere on this page. A short comment about the particular strengths of a resource can be helpful. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Notes

Footnotes are not required but are encouraged for factual assertions that average readers cannot easily evaluate for themselves (such as the date of King Solomon’s death or the nuanced definition of a Greek word). In contrast, insights rarely benefit from footnoting, and the focus of this page should always remain on the scriptures themselves rather than what someone has said about them. Links are actively encouraged on all sections of this page, and links to authoritative sources (such as Strong's Bible Concordance or the Joseph Smith Papers) are preferable to footnotes.

Previous page: John                      Next page: Chapters 1b-12

Home > The New Testament > John > Chapter 1a / Verses 1:1-18
Previous page: John                      Next page: Chapters 1b-12

This page would ideally always be under construction. You are invited to contribute.

Summary

This section should be very brief. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Discussion

This section is for detailed discussion such as the meaning of a symbol, how a doctrinal point is developed throughout a passage, or insights that can be further developed in the future. Contributions may range from polished paragraphs down to a single bullet point. The focus, however, should always be on understanding the scriptural text consistent with LDS doctrine. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:1-18. It appears that John has used an existing hymn to open his gospel, inserting commentary at a few points in the hymn. Verse 1 of the hymn: verses 1-2; verse 2 of the hymn: verses 3-5; verse 3 of the hymn: verses 10-12; Verse 4 of the hymn, verse 14; verse 5 of the hymn, verse 16. The other verses (6-9, the last part of 12, 13, 15, 17, and 18) are probably commentary on the hymn.

• John 1:1-2. The Greek word translated "beginning" has a variety of meanings. For example, it can mean "first in time," "ultimate principle," "ruler," or "norm." Thus, a person who spoke Greek would hear not only the meaning we get in the translation ("In the beginning was the word"), but also the connotations created by these other meanings. Those connotations would have influenced how a person reading John when it was first written would understand the passage. The implication of those connotations would be that Christ is the ultimate principle, standard, or ruler, a ruler who has existed, in the presence of God, from the beginning.

The Greek word translated "Word" is logos. It has two broad meanings: (1) the explanation or revelation of something (including meanings like "account," "speech," "proportion," "relation," "measure," and "mind"), and, (2) the most essential element of things, the things that makes every other thing intelligible. (The latter broad meaning gives rise to specific meanings like "revelation," "law," "truth," "knowledge," "virtue," "nature," and "spirit.") The root of the word logos is the verb legein, "to gather."

Though John writes in Greek and seems to be addressing a primarily Greek audience, he is probably also depending on the Old Testament use of the word "word." (See the New Testament footnotes for more information.) For us, given the way English works, a word is a sign of a thing, a concept. But in the Old Testament, God’s word refers more to an event or a deed than it does to a concept. A word is what does something. As a result, in the Old Testament, "word" usually refers to prophetic revelation and, often, specifically to the Mosaic Law. It refers specifically to the giving of the revelation rather than to its content. In line with this, "word" also can refer to the word spoken to create something, as in Genesis 1:1. (We can see this use of word in Ezekiel 37:4 and Jacob 4:9, and, by implication, in Isaiah 40:26.)

The phrase, "the Word was with God," can literally be translated "the Word was before ['in front of,' 'in the presence of,' or even 'toward'] God."

The order of the words in the Greek exhibit a literary form known as Climax or Gradation:

 In the beginning was 
   the Word: and 
   the Word was with 
     God: and 
     God
       the Word was, and
       the same [word] was in the beginning with God.

• John 1:4-5. Notice that the verse in verse 4 are in the past tense and the last verb in verse 5 ("did not comprehend") is also in the past tense, but the first verb in verse 5 ("shines") is in the present tense.

The Climax form is used again:

 In Him was
   life; and the
   life was the
     light of men. And the
     light shineth in
       darkness; and the 
       darkness comprehended it not.

• John 1:4-5. In the Old Testament, the word "light" usually refers to experienced brightness; it refers to experience rather than to a thing or a state. Therefore, the word "light" also refers to salvation, our experience of being in the right relation with God or our experience of our relation with God made right. God is our light (Psalms 27:1): he enlightens us by making our salvation possible (Psalms 97:11). The contrast of light and dark is not as important to the Old Testament (or to the B.C. part of the Book of Mormon) as it is to John; in making that contrast John seems to introduce an essentially new element. In the Gospel of John, light stands at least for revelation (see John 12:36) and, therefore, also for the Revealer (John 1:5?, 8:12, 9:5, and 12:46).

• John 1:5: Comprehended. The Greek word katelaben means "to seize" (possibly with one's mind), "to make one’s own," or "to overcome." (See the NT footnotes and the NET footnotes.) The NRSV rendering is "And the light shines in darkness, and the darkness did not overcome it."

• John 1:11: His own. See this post by Kevin Barney at the Feast blog for an analysis of the underlying Greek text here. The first occurrence of idios ("his own") is neutral in gender whereas the second is masculine. Here are a list of alternate translations. The NRSV rendering is: "He came to what was his own, and his own people did not accept him."

• John 1:12: Receive. Another translation of the Greek word translated "receive" is "accept."

• John 1:14: Grace. The word translated "grace" could also be translated "mercy." The phrase "grace and truth" seems to imitate a pair of characteristics used to describe God in the Old Testament: his loving-kindness (esed) and his faithfulness in keeping his covenants (‘emet). Exodus 34:6 is representative of many Old Testament scriptures that mention these attributes of God, probably the most important of the divine attributes discussed in the Old Testament. (See also Psalms 25:10, 61:7, 86:15; and Proverbs 20:28.) This early hymn explicitly identifies Christ with the God of the Old Testament.

• John 1:14: Truth. The word translated "truth" means truth, but it originally meant "what is unconcealed" or "what is revealed" (though by the time of Christ that origin had probably long been forgotten).

• John 1:14. Structurally, this verse repeats verse 1. Like verse one it testifies of Christ’s existence, of his relation to the Father, and of his attributes: "the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us"—he exists; "we beheld his glory, the glory of the unique Son of the Father"—his relation to the Father; full of grace and love—his attributes.

Though "only begotten" is an accurate translation, that translation changes the emphasis of the original. The Greek emphasizes the uniqueness of the Son. Literally, this says "the glory of a singular Son coming from the Father."

Unanswered questions

This section is for questions along the lines of "I still don't understand ..." Please do not be shy. The point of these questions is to identify things that still need to be addressed on this page. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Prompts for life application

This section is for prompts that suggest ways in which a passage can influence a person's life. Prompts may be appropriate either for private self reflection or for a class discussion. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Prompts for further study

This section is for prompts that invite us to think about a passage more deeply or in a new way. These are not necessarily questions that beg for answers, but rather prompts along the lines of "Have you ever thought about ..." Prompts are most helpful when they are developed individually, thoughtfully, and with enough background information to clearly indicate a particular direction for further study or thought. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:1. Why does John begin his testimony of Christ’s ministry with the same words we find at the beginning of Genesis (Genesis 1:1), "In the beginning . . ."? Why does John begin his book by referring to the beginning rather than to the birth of Christ? Is he concerned with the creation itself or with something else? If the latter, what?

• John 1:1. Why is Christ called "the Word"? How is Christ the word of the Old Testament? What does it mean to say that he is?

• John 1:1. What does it mean to say that Christ was with the Father in the beginning? What does it mean to be in the presence of God? In what sense might Christ have been "toward" the Father? (Moses 4:1-2 seems relevant here.)

• John 1:2. This verse repeats the content of verse 1. Why?

• John 1:3. To what is the verse referring when it says that "all things" were made by Christ? Is it referring only to the world and the objects in the world?

• John 1:4. What does it mean to say that life was in the Word? Physical life? Spiritual life? When did the physical creation occur? When did the spiritual creation, the spiritual life, with which John is concerned occur? What is the connection of this verse to the previous verse? In other words, what does the meaning of this verse have to do with that of verse 3? A more literal translation of the second half of the verse might be, "and this life was the light of human beings." To what does "this life" refer? What does the last half of the verse mean?

• John 1:5. What does it mean to say that the light shines in darkness? What does it mean to say that the darkness did not comprehend the light?

• John 1:6-9. Why does John think that it is important to respond to verses 1 through 5 by talking about John the Baptist? Can you explain what in the first five verses might have prompted him to interject this discussion of John the Baptist? Why was/is the testimony of verses 8-9 important?

• John 1:13. What does this verse tell us about how we come to have the power to become the children of God? What does it mean to say that those who believe on God are not born of blood? That they are not born of the will of the flesh? That they are not born of the will of man? What does it mean to be born of God? In the Old Testament flesh often refers to human weakness, as in Isaiah 40:6. Blood in the Old Testament is usually associated with death. Might John have those associations in mind? If so, how does that help us understand this verse? Some have suggested that "blood" means "natural generation," that "flesh" means "natural desires, such as the desire to have children," and that "the will of man" means "the human ability to choose." Does that help give insight into a possible meaning of this verse?

• John 1:14. How do you think that those of a Greek culture, including educated Jews, would have responded to this announcement: God was made flesh and dwelt among human beings? How would Greek and Roman intellectuals have responded?

• John 1:14. What does it mean to say that Jesus is full of grace? That he is full of truth?

• John 1:15. Just as John began his commentary on this hymn by talking about John the Baptist, he ends by talking about John the Baptist. Why? Why was John the Baptist so important to explaining the mission of Jesus? (Compare Mark 1:7 and Matthew 3:11.)

• John 1:16: Grace for grace. What does "grace for grace" mean? Does it mean "one kind of grace replacing another," perhaps the expression of divine mercy (esed—loving-kindness) in the Mosaic covenant replaced by its expression in the new covenant? Does it mean that "grace is piled upon grace," indicting an abundance of fullness? Or, does it mean "grace in return for grace"? Look at the other places where this phrase occurs in scripture and see whether those help you understand better the meaning of the phrase (Helaman 12:24; D&C 93:12 and 20). Do we see the same teaching in Doctrine and Covenants 84:38?

• John 1:17. What is the contrast between the law, on the one hand, and grace and truth, on the other? How have we received the fulness and what is the fulness mentioned in verse 16? How does this verse tell us to understand "grace for grace" in verse 16?

• John 1:18. How did Joseph Smith clarify the meaning of this verse? How does this verse help us understand the meaning of the hymn? Specifically, how does it help us understand verse 16?

Resources

This section is for listing links and print resources, including those that are also cited elsewhere on this page. A short comment about the particular strengths of a resource can be helpful. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Notes

Footnotes are not required but are encouraged for factual assertions that average readers cannot easily evaluate for themselves (such as the date of King Solomon’s death or the nuanced definition of a Greek word). In contrast, insights rarely benefit from footnoting, and the focus of this page should always remain on the scriptures themselves rather than what someone has said about them. Links are actively encouraged on all sections of this page, and links to authoritative sources (such as Strong's Bible Concordance or the Joseph Smith Papers) are preferable to footnotes.

Previous page: John                      Next page: Chapters 1b-12

Home > The New Testament > John > Chapter 1a / Verses 1:1-18
Previous page: John                      Next page: Chapters 1b-12

This page would ideally always be under construction. You are invited to contribute.

Summary

This section should be very brief. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Discussion

This section is for detailed discussion such as the meaning of a symbol, how a doctrinal point is developed throughout a passage, or insights that can be further developed in the future. Contributions may range from polished paragraphs down to a single bullet point. The focus, however, should always be on understanding the scriptural text consistent with LDS doctrine. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:1-18. It appears that John has used an existing hymn to open his gospel, inserting commentary at a few points in the hymn. Verse 1 of the hymn: verses 1-2; verse 2 of the hymn: verses 3-5; verse 3 of the hymn: verses 10-12; Verse 4 of the hymn, verse 14; verse 5 of the hymn, verse 16. The other verses (6-9, the last part of 12, 13, 15, 17, and 18) are probably commentary on the hymn.

• John 1:1-2. The Greek word translated "beginning" has a variety of meanings. For example, it can mean "first in time," "ultimate principle," "ruler," or "norm." Thus, a person who spoke Greek would hear not only the meaning we get in the translation ("In the beginning was the word"), but also the connotations created by these other meanings. Those connotations would have influenced how a person reading John when it was first written would understand the passage. The implication of those connotations would be that Christ is the ultimate principle, standard, or ruler, a ruler who has existed, in the presence of God, from the beginning.

The Greek word translated "Word" is logos. It has two broad meanings: (1) the explanation or revelation of something (including meanings like "account," "speech," "proportion," "relation," "measure," and "mind"), and, (2) the most essential element of things, the things that makes every other thing intelligible. (The latter broad meaning gives rise to specific meanings like "revelation," "law," "truth," "knowledge," "virtue," "nature," and "spirit.") The root of the word logos is the verb legein, "to gather."

Though John writes in Greek and seems to be addressing a primarily Greek audience, he is probably also depending on the Old Testament use of the word "word." (See the New Testament footnotes for more information.) For us, given the way English works, a word is a sign of a thing, a concept. But in the Old Testament, God’s word refers more to an event or a deed than it does to a concept. A word is what does something. As a result, in the Old Testament, "word" usually refers to prophetic revelation and, often, specifically to the Mosaic Law. It refers specifically to the giving of the revelation rather than to its content. In line with this, "word" also can refer to the word spoken to create something, as in Genesis 1:1. (We can see this use of word in Ezekiel 37:4 and Jacob 4:9, and, by implication, in Isaiah 40:26.)

The phrase, "the Word was with God," can literally be translated "the Word was before ['in front of,' 'in the presence of,' or even 'toward'] God."

The order of the words in the Greek exhibit a literary form known as Climax or Gradation:

 In the beginning was 
   the Word: and 
   the Word was with 
     God: and 
     God
       the Word was, and
       the same [word] was in the beginning with God.

• John 1:4-5. Notice that the verse in verse 4 are in the past tense and the last verb in verse 5 ("did not comprehend") is also in the past tense, but the first verb in verse 5 ("shines") is in the present tense.

The Climax form is used again:

 In Him was
   life; and the
   life was the
     light of men. And the
     light shineth in
       darkness; and the 
       darkness comprehended it not.

• John 1:4-5. In the Old Testament, the word "light" usually refers to experienced brightness; it refers to experience rather than to a thing or a state. Therefore, the word "light" also refers to salvation, our experience of being in the right relation with God or our experience of our relation with God made right. God is our light (Psalms 27:1): he enlightens us by making our salvation possible (Psalms 97:11). The contrast of light and dark is not as important to the Old Testament (or to the B.C. part of the Book of Mormon) as it is to John; in making that contrast John seems to introduce an essentially new element. In the Gospel of John, light stands at least for revelation (see John 12:36) and, therefore, also for the Revealer (John 1:5?, 8:12, 9:5, and 12:46).

• John 1:5: Comprehended. The Greek word katelaben means "to seize" (possibly with one's mind), "to make one’s own," or "to overcome." (See the NT footnotes and the NET footnotes.) The NRSV rendering is "And the light shines in darkness, and the darkness did not overcome it."

• John 1:11: His own. See this post by Kevin Barney at the Feast blog for an analysis of the underlying Greek text here. The first occurrence of idios ("his own") is neutral in gender whereas the second is masculine. Here are a list of alternate translations. The NRSV rendering is: "He came to what was his own, and his own people did not accept him."

• John 1:12: Receive. Another translation of the Greek word translated "receive" is "accept."

• John 1:14: Grace. The word translated "grace" could also be translated "mercy." The phrase "grace and truth" seems to imitate a pair of characteristics used to describe God in the Old Testament: his loving-kindness (esed) and his faithfulness in keeping his covenants (‘emet). Exodus 34:6 is representative of many Old Testament scriptures that mention these attributes of God, probably the most important of the divine attributes discussed in the Old Testament. (See also Psalms 25:10, 61:7, 86:15; and Proverbs 20:28.) This early hymn explicitly identifies Christ with the God of the Old Testament.

• John 1:14: Truth. The word translated "truth" means truth, but it originally meant "what is unconcealed" or "what is revealed" (though by the time of Christ that origin had probably long been forgotten).

• John 1:14. Structurally, this verse repeats verse 1. Like verse one it testifies of Christ’s existence, of his relation to the Father, and of his attributes: "the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us"—he exists; "we beheld his glory, the glory of the unique Son of the Father"—his relation to the Father; full of grace and love—his attributes.

Though "only begotten" is an accurate translation, that translation changes the emphasis of the original. The Greek emphasizes the uniqueness of the Son. Literally, this says "the glory of a singular Son coming from the Father."

Unanswered questions

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Prompts for life application

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Prompts for further study

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• John 1:1. Why does John begin his testimony of Christ’s ministry with the same words we find at the beginning of Genesis (Genesis 1:1), "In the beginning . . ."? Why does John begin his book by referring to the beginning rather than to the birth of Christ? Is he concerned with the creation itself or with something else? If the latter, what?

• John 1:1. Why is Christ called "the Word"? How is Christ the word of the Old Testament? What does it mean to say that he is?

• John 1:1. What does it mean to say that Christ was with the Father in the beginning? What does it mean to be in the presence of God? In what sense might Christ have been "toward" the Father? (Moses 4:1-2 seems relevant here.)

• John 1:2. This verse repeats the content of verse 1. Why?

• John 1:3. To what is the verse referring when it says that "all things" were made by Christ? Is it referring only to the world and the objects in the world?

• John 1:4. What does it mean to say that life was in the Word? Physical life? Spiritual life? When did the physical creation occur? When did the spiritual creation, the spiritual life, with which John is concerned occur? What is the connection of this verse to the previous verse? In other words, what does the meaning of this verse have to do with that of verse 3? A more literal translation of the second half of the verse might be, "and this life was the light of human beings." To what does "this life" refer? What does the last half of the verse mean?

• John 1:5. What does it mean to say that the light shines in darkness? What does it mean to say that the darkness did not comprehend the light?

• John 1:6-9. Why does John think that it is important to respond to verses 1 through 5 by talking about John the Baptist? Can you explain what in the first five verses might have prompted him to interject this discussion of John the Baptist? Why was/is the testimony of verses 8-9 important?

• John 1:13. What does this verse tell us about how we come to have the power to become the children of God? What does it mean to say that those who believe on God are not born of blood? That they are not born of the will of the flesh? That they are not born of the will of man? What does it mean to be born of God? In the Old Testament flesh often refers to human weakness, as in Isaiah 40:6. Blood in the Old Testament is usually associated with death. Might John have those associations in mind? If so, how does that help us understand this verse? Some have suggested that "blood" means "natural generation," that "flesh" means "natural desires, such as the desire to have children," and that "the will of man" means "the human ability to choose." Does that help give insight into a possible meaning of this verse?

• John 1:14. How do you think that those of a Greek culture, including educated Jews, would have responded to this announcement: God was made flesh and dwelt among human beings? How would Greek and Roman intellectuals have responded?

• John 1:14. What does it mean to say that Jesus is full of grace? That he is full of truth?

• John 1:15. Just as John began his commentary on this hymn by talking about John the Baptist, he ends by talking about John the Baptist. Why? Why was John the Baptist so important to explaining the mission of Jesus? (Compare Mark 1:7 and Matthew 3:11.)

• John 1:16: Grace for grace. What does "grace for grace" mean? Does it mean "one kind of grace replacing another," perhaps the expression of divine mercy (esed—loving-kindness) in the Mosaic covenant replaced by its expression in the new covenant? Does it mean that "grace is piled upon grace," indicting an abundance of fullness? Or, does it mean "grace in return for grace"? Look at the other places where this phrase occurs in scripture and see whether those help you understand better the meaning of the phrase (Helaman 12:24; D&C 93:12 and 20). Do we see the same teaching in Doctrine and Covenants 84:38?

• John 1:17. What is the contrast between the law, on the one hand, and grace and truth, on the other? How have we received the fulness and what is the fulness mentioned in verse 16? How does this verse tell us to understand "grace for grace" in verse 16?

• John 1:18. How did Joseph Smith clarify the meaning of this verse? How does this verse help us understand the meaning of the hymn? Specifically, how does it help us understand verse 16?

Resources

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Notes

Footnotes are not required but are encouraged for factual assertions that average readers cannot easily evaluate for themselves (such as the date of King Solomon’s death or the nuanced definition of a Greek word). In contrast, insights rarely benefit from footnoting, and the focus of this page should always remain on the scriptures themselves rather than what someone has said about them. Links are actively encouraged on all sections of this page, and links to authoritative sources (such as Strong's Bible Concordance or the Joseph Smith Papers) are preferable to footnotes.

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Home > The New Testament > John > Chapter 1a / Verses 1:1-18
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Summary

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Discussion

This section is for detailed discussion such as the meaning of a symbol, how a doctrinal point is developed throughout a passage, or insights that can be further developed in the future. Contributions may range from polished paragraphs down to a single bullet point. The focus, however, should always be on understanding the scriptural text consistent with LDS doctrine. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:1-18. It appears that John has used an existing hymn to open his gospel, inserting commentary at a few points in the hymn. Verse 1 of the hymn: verses 1-2; verse 2 of the hymn: verses 3-5; verse 3 of the hymn: verses 10-12; Verse 4 of the hymn, verse 14; verse 5 of the hymn, verse 16. The other verses (6-9, the last part of 12, 13, 15, 17, and 18) are probably commentary on the hymn.

• John 1:1-2. The Greek word translated "beginning" has a variety of meanings. For example, it can mean "first in time," "ultimate principle," "ruler," or "norm." Thus, a person who spoke Greek would hear not only the meaning we get in the translation ("In the beginning was the word"), but also the connotations created by these other meanings. Those connotations would have influenced how a person reading John when it was first written would understand the passage. The implication of those connotations would be that Christ is the ultimate principle, standard, or ruler, a ruler who has existed, in the presence of God, from the beginning.

The Greek word translated "Word" is logos. It has two broad meanings: (1) the explanation or revelation of something (including meanings like "account," "speech," "proportion," "relation," "measure," and "mind"), and, (2) the most essential element of things, the things that makes every other thing intelligible. (The latter broad meaning gives rise to specific meanings like "revelation," "law," "truth," "knowledge," "virtue," "nature," and "spirit.") The root of the word logos is the verb legein, "to gather."

Though John writes in Greek and seems to be addressing a primarily Greek audience, he is probably also depending on the Old Testament use of the word "word." (See the New Testament footnotes for more information.) For us, given the way English works, a word is a sign of a thing, a concept. But in the Old Testament, God’s word refers more to an event or a deed than it does to a concept. A word is what does something. As a result, in the Old Testament, "word" usually refers to prophetic revelation and, often, specifically to the Mosaic Law. It refers specifically to the giving of the revelation rather than to its content. In line with this, "word" also can refer to the word spoken to create something, as in Genesis 1:1. (We can see this use of word in Ezekiel 37:4 and Jacob 4:9, and, by implication, in Isaiah 40:26.)

The phrase, "the Word was with God," can literally be translated "the Word was before ['in front of,' 'in the presence of,' or even 'toward'] God."

The order of the words in the Greek exhibit a literary form known as Climax or Gradation:

 In the beginning was 
   the Word: and 
   the Word was with 
     God: and 
     God
       the Word was, and
       the same [word] was in the beginning with God.

• John 1:4-5. Notice that the verse in verse 4 are in the past tense and the last verb in verse 5 ("did not comprehend") is also in the past tense, but the first verb in verse 5 ("shines") is in the present tense.

The Climax form is used again:

 In Him was
   life; and the
   life was the
     light of men. And the
     light shineth in
       darkness; and the 
       darkness comprehended it not.

• John 1:4-5. In the Old Testament, the word "light" usually refers to experienced brightness; it refers to experience rather than to a thing or a state. Therefore, the word "light" also refers to salvation, our experience of being in the right relation with God or our experience of our relation with God made right. God is our light (Psalms 27:1): he enlightens us by making our salvation possible (Psalms 97:11). The contrast of light and dark is not as important to the Old Testament (or to the B.C. part of the Book of Mormon) as it is to John; in making that contrast John seems to introduce an essentially new element. In the Gospel of John, light stands at least for revelation (see John 12:36) and, therefore, also for the Revealer (John 1:5?, 8:12, 9:5, and 12:46).

• John 1:5: Comprehended. The Greek word katelaben means "to seize" (possibly with one's mind), "to make one’s own," or "to overcome." (See the NT footnotes and the NET footnotes.) The NRSV rendering is "And the light shines in darkness, and the darkness did not overcome it."

• John 1:11: His own. See this post by Kevin Barney at the Feast blog for an analysis of the underlying Greek text here. The first occurrence of idios ("his own") is neutral in gender whereas the second is masculine. Here are a list of alternate translations. The NRSV rendering is: "He came to what was his own, and his own people did not accept him."

• John 1:12: Receive. Another translation of the Greek word translated "receive" is "accept."

• John 1:14: Grace. The word translated "grace" could also be translated "mercy." The phrase "grace and truth" seems to imitate a pair of characteristics used to describe God in the Old Testament: his loving-kindness (esed) and his faithfulness in keeping his covenants (‘emet). Exodus 34:6 is representative of many Old Testament scriptures that mention these attributes of God, probably the most important of the divine attributes discussed in the Old Testament. (See also Psalms 25:10, 61:7, 86:15; and Proverbs 20:28.) This early hymn explicitly identifies Christ with the God of the Old Testament.

• John 1:14: Truth. The word translated "truth" means truth, but it originally meant "what is unconcealed" or "what is revealed" (though by the time of Christ that origin had probably long been forgotten).

• John 1:14. Structurally, this verse repeats verse 1. Like verse one it testifies of Christ’s existence, of his relation to the Father, and of his attributes: "the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us"—he exists; "we beheld his glory, the glory of the unique Son of the Father"—his relation to the Father; full of grace and love—his attributes.

Though "only begotten" is an accurate translation, that translation changes the emphasis of the original. The Greek emphasizes the uniqueness of the Son. Literally, this says "the glory of a singular Son coming from the Father."

Unanswered questions

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Prompts for life application

This section is for prompts that suggest ways in which a passage can influence a person's life. Prompts may be appropriate either for private self reflection or for a class discussion. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Prompts for further study

This section is for prompts that invite us to think about a passage more deeply or in a new way. These are not necessarily questions that beg for answers, but rather prompts along the lines of "Have you ever thought about ..." Prompts are most helpful when they are developed individually, thoughtfully, and with enough background information to clearly indicate a particular direction for further study or thought. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:1. Why does John begin his testimony of Christ’s ministry with the same words we find at the beginning of Genesis (Genesis 1:1), "In the beginning . . ."? Why does John begin his book by referring to the beginning rather than to the birth of Christ? Is he concerned with the creation itself or with something else? If the latter, what?

• John 1:1. Why is Christ called "the Word"? How is Christ the word of the Old Testament? What does it mean to say that he is?

• John 1:1. What does it mean to say that Christ was with the Father in the beginning? What does it mean to be in the presence of God? In what sense might Christ have been "toward" the Father? (Moses 4:1-2 seems relevant here.)

• John 1:2. This verse repeats the content of verse 1. Why?

• John 1:3. To what is the verse referring when it says that "all things" were made by Christ? Is it referring only to the world and the objects in the world?

• John 1:4. What does it mean to say that life was in the Word? Physical life? Spiritual life? When did the physical creation occur? When did the spiritual creation, the spiritual life, with which John is concerned occur? What is the connection of this verse to the previous verse? In other words, what does the meaning of this verse have to do with that of verse 3? A more literal translation of the second half of the verse might be, "and this life was the light of human beings." To what does "this life" refer? What does the last half of the verse mean?

• John 1:5. What does it mean to say that the light shines in darkness? What does it mean to say that the darkness did not comprehend the light?

• John 1:6-9. Why does John think that it is important to respond to verses 1 through 5 by talking about John the Baptist? Can you explain what in the first five verses might have prompted him to interject this discussion of John the Baptist? Why was/is the testimony of verses 8-9 important?

• John 1:13. What does this verse tell us about how we come to have the power to become the children of God? What does it mean to say that those who believe on God are not born of blood? That they are not born of the will of the flesh? That they are not born of the will of man? What does it mean to be born of God? In the Old Testament flesh often refers to human weakness, as in Isaiah 40:6. Blood in the Old Testament is usually associated with death. Might John have those associations in mind? If so, how does that help us understand this verse? Some have suggested that "blood" means "natural generation," that "flesh" means "natural desires, such as the desire to have children," and that "the will of man" means "the human ability to choose." Does that help give insight into a possible meaning of this verse?

• John 1:14. How do you think that those of a Greek culture, including educated Jews, would have responded to this announcement: God was made flesh and dwelt among human beings? How would Greek and Roman intellectuals have responded?

• John 1:14. What does it mean to say that Jesus is full of grace? That he is full of truth?

• John 1:15. Just as John began his commentary on this hymn by talking about John the Baptist, he ends by talking about John the Baptist. Why? Why was John the Baptist so important to explaining the mission of Jesus? (Compare Mark 1:7 and Matthew 3:11.)

• John 1:16: Grace for grace. What does "grace for grace" mean? Does it mean "one kind of grace replacing another," perhaps the expression of divine mercy (esed—loving-kindness) in the Mosaic covenant replaced by its expression in the new covenant? Does it mean that "grace is piled upon grace," indicting an abundance of fullness? Or, does it mean "grace in return for grace"? Look at the other places where this phrase occurs in scripture and see whether those help you understand better the meaning of the phrase (Helaman 12:24; D&C 93:12 and 20). Do we see the same teaching in Doctrine and Covenants 84:38?

• John 1:17. What is the contrast between the law, on the one hand, and grace and truth, on the other? How have we received the fulness and what is the fulness mentioned in verse 16? How does this verse tell us to understand "grace for grace" in verse 16?

• John 1:18. How did Joseph Smith clarify the meaning of this verse? How does this verse help us understand the meaning of the hymn? Specifically, how does it help us understand verse 16?

Resources

This section is for listing links and print resources, including those that are also cited elsewhere on this page. A short comment about the particular strengths of a resource can be helpful. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Notes

Footnotes are not required but are encouraged for factual assertions that average readers cannot easily evaluate for themselves (such as the date of King Solomon’s death or the nuanced definition of a Greek word). In contrast, insights rarely benefit from footnoting, and the focus of this page should always remain on the scriptures themselves rather than what someone has said about them. Links are actively encouraged on all sections of this page, and links to authoritative sources (such as Strong's Bible Concordance or the Joseph Smith Papers) are preferable to footnotes.

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Home > The New Testament > John > Chapters 1b-12 > Chapters 1b-3
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Summary

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Discussion

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• John 2:13-17. Only in John does the “cleansing of the temple” occur at the beginning of Jesus’ public ministry: the other three Gospels place it as one of the last of Jesus’ actions before his arrest. This may be because A) there really was only one cleansing, which occurs later, but John mentions it earlier in order to use it as a symbol of Jesus’ entire mission, or B) there were two cleansings: an early one that John describes (but that Jesus “got away with”) and a later one that finally provoked action from the high priest, whose anger toward Jesus had been festering for some time.

• John 2:23: Passover. The best description of Passover is found in Exodus 12-13 and is celebrated in commemoration of the children of Israel exiting from Israel. It was also celebrated by Joshua and the people of Israel upon entering the land of Canaan (Joshua 5:10-12) connecting it to the arrival of Israel to the Promised Land. In Exodus Passover is portrayed as a family observance taking place primarily in the home. Immediately following the Passover was the seven day feast of unleavened bread and on the seventh day of that feast a pilgrimage to a holy place is made. The two occasions appear to have been separate events, though directly concurrent and related.

In Deuteronomy 16:1-8, Passover becomes an event requiring pilgrimage. "Thou mayest not sacrifice the passover within any of thy agates, which the LORD thy God giveth thee but at the place which the LORD thy God shall choose to place his name in, there thou shalt sacrifice the passover at even, at the going down of the sun, at the season that thou camest forth out of Egypt." (Deut 16:5-6) It is in this fashion that Hezekiah (2 Chr 30) and Josiah (2 Chr 35:1-19) performed the Passover, and the way in which it appears to have performed in the New Testament. It is this latter procedure which Christ follows in the New Testament and his apparent purpose for coming to Jerusalem during this time. During this time many of the people would have been gathered in Jerusalem and would have been a prime time for ministering.

Passover is an important event, but it is not, as believed by some, the most important event of the year. That distinction belongs more to the Day of Atonement (Yom Kippur) than to Passover. Even so, Passover plays a prominent role in NT scripture associated with the sacrifice of Christ himself. (see John 13:1; 19:14, 31, 42).

(see Eerdmans Dictionary of the Bible, ed. David Freedman, pg. 1013-1014).

• John 3:1: Nicodemus. The name “Nicodemus” means “conqueror” and it was a common name. We know little about Nicodemus. We know that he was a Pharisee because this verse tells that he was. We know that he was some kind of ruler, though we don’t know what kind, because this verse tell us that he was. Many have speculated that Nicodemus was a member of the Sanhedrin, but we have little evidence for that speculation and we know little about the Sanhedrin. If he was a member of the Sanhedrin, then he was a member of the ruling body of Jerusalem, a Pharisee, and a teacher (scribe). He was the height of what most people would have taken to be a good Jew, and he probably would be one of those referred to in John 12:42.

• John 3:1: Man. Notice the use of this term at the end of the previous chapter, John 2:25.

• John 3:5: Born. The Greek word gennao seems to have a connotation of conversion for Jews.

• John 3:5: Again. The Greek word anwyen can mean either "above" (particularly relating to God) or "again."

• John 3:5: Symbolism of water. Water here may refer to a number of scriptural symbolic metaphors: baptism; the fountain of life; the Red Sea and Jordan River, both of which have important symbolic meaning in the Old Testament; water which quenches thirst during a drought; water that causes things to grow; ritual cleansings (incl. Namaan's being healed by bathing in the River Jordan); the waters referred to in creation. See also Ezek 36. This may also be related to mikvah in Judaism.

• John 3:5: Water and Spirit. Water is an important element in physical birth, so the reference here may be to the birth of our spirit occurring in a way that is analogous to our physical birth. However, scholars seem to favor reading "water and Spirit" together rather than separately. That is, in order to be born from above ("again" in verse 7), one must be born of both water and the Spirit: being born of water and the Spirit is a restatement of being born again. (See this comment on Jim F.'s Sunday school lesson.) This might also be echoing the way that the Spirit of God is described as brooding on the water in the creation account(s).

• John 3:6: Flesh is flesh. This may just mean "don't set your heart on the world," or this may refer to genealogical superiority as expressed in Matt 3:9 and Luke 3:8. (See also the cross-references in the questions above.)

• John 3:8: Spirit and wind. The word-play between "spirit" and "wind" (see question above) also seems to be used in Eccl 11:4ff, Isa 44:3-4, and Ezek 37:1-14. The passage in Ecclesiastes seems to emphasize the necessity of faith in the face of uncertainty: a farmer who waits for the perfect moment to plant so the wind won't blow away the seed, may never plant the seed because he is always waiting for the perfect moment!

The wind-spirit word play here may be emphasizing the unpredictability of the Spirit, the idea that no matter how much we study and think and plan, if we are truly to be born again, we must be responsive in the very moment the Spirit calls us, to whatever it calls us to do, no matter how absurd that call may be (e.g. to sacrifice our favorite son like Abraham, or to cut off someone’s head like Nephi, etc.). This seems to complement nicely Paul’s phrase “the law/letter killeth, but the Spirit giveth life” in 2 Cor 3:6. There may also be significance to the fact that the Spirit is heard and not seen, since looking for signs is usually set in contrast to those who hearken to the Spirit and exercise faith (see, for example, Alma 32:17ff). Also, this may be an oblique reference to the way in which Elijah and Melchizekek seem to appear and disappear whenever and wherever they want.

• John 3:13: Interpretational gloss? See comments 8-9 on Jim F.'s Sunday school post regarding the possibility of this being an interpretational gloss.

• John 3:16, 18: Only begotten. The Greek word, monogenes, translated as "only begotten" in verses 16 and 18 is used to refer to Christ in the New Testament only in the Gospel of John. Elsewhere in the New Testament, as in Luke 8:42, monogenes is used to refer to an only son or daughter. The Greek word carries a strong connotation of uniqueness, and modern translations often used often use "unique son" or "one and only son" in translating these verses. However, the phrase "only begotten son" captures a sense of the Greek that is missing in some of the modern translations. The word monogenes can stand alone, as it does in John 1:14, to mean an only child. By using both monogenes and huios (translated as "son"), John is using redundancy to place an emphasis on the sonship of Jesus. Thus it may be safe to assume that when "only begotten son" is used in modern revelation (often written in an English style patterned after the King James Version) that there is an emphasis on Jesus being the son of God in both a unique and a real sense.

• John 3:25-30: The bridegroom. Regarding Christ as the bridegroom, see the discussion of the bride and bridegroom and the marriage supper of the Lamb in connection with Matt 25:1-13 (Parable of the Ten Virgins).

Unanswered questions

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• John 2:24-25. What do these two verses mean? It seems to have to do with God knowing the hearts of men, but beyond that, I'm not sure what is really meant.

Prompts for life application

This section is for prompts that suggest ways in which a passage can influence a person's life. Prompts may be appropriate either for private self reflection or for a class discussion. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Prompts for further study

This section is for prompts that invite us to think about a passage more deeply or in a new way. These are not necessarily questions that beg for answers, but rather prompts along the lines of "Have you ever thought about ..." Prompts are most helpful when they are developed individually, thoughtfully, and with enough background information to clearly indicate a particular direction for further study or thought. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:29. What is the "sin of the world"?

• John 1:47. In verse 1:47 it sounds like GUILE is a negative thing which Nathanael was free of, and yet in verse 46 it sounds like Nathanael was critical of the town of Nazareth and anybody who came from there. Still, in Alma 18:23, it sounds like Ammon's catching Lamoni "with guile" is a bad thing, yet he's doing a good thing in teaching him the gospel. How is GUILE being using here as it applies to Nathanael?

• John 2:6. What was the water set aside for? Why would the author include this detail?

• John 2:10. How do the governor’s (i.e. master of ceremonies) words play into the symbolism in verse 6?

• John 2:11. The author states that this was the beginning of the miracles that Jesus performed. (Note: he does not say that it was the beginning of Jesus’ ministry, which, of course, had already begun: Jesus had been baptizing.) How is this an appropriate way and occasion to begin his miracles? Note: Jesus expounds on this theme in Luke 4:26.

• John 2:14. Why were there merchants selling animals and changing money in the temple?

• John 2:19. What is significant about Jesus’ comparison of the temple to his body? How is Jesus’ body like the temple in Jerusalem? (See also verse 21.)

• John 3:1. What do we know about Nicodemus? How does this affect the way we read this story?

• John 3:2: By night. Why might Nicodemus have come to Jesus by night? Is Jesus doing something during the day that might have made it easier for Nicodemus to come at night? Is Nicodemus doing something during the day that might have made it easier for him to come at night? Might he have been trying to protect himself? Might he have been trying to protect Jesus? Is there any symbolic significance to the fact that Nicodemus came to Jesus out of the night. (Think about other ways that John uses the night in his gospel.)

• John 3:2: Rabbi. Why does Nicodemus call Jesus “Rabbi”? The word “rabbi” is a transliteration of a Hebrew term meaning “great.” In Jesus’ time it was used as a term of respect and it was primarily applied to the scribes—those who taught from and interpreted the scriptures—by their followers. Thus, “rabbi” was a term of respect that one used for one’s teacher. What is Nicodemus saying by calling Jesus a teacher? Why does Nicodemus us the plural, “we,” rather than the singular, “I”?

• John 3:2: Miracles. How does Nicodemus claim to know that Jesus has come from God? Do miracles prove that the person who works them has a divine origin? Is it relevant that, during the tempation in the desert, Jesus refused to work miracles as a proof of his divinity and power? Does Nicodemus’s confession help us understand him any better than we might without it?

• John 3:2: From God. What does Nicodemus mean when he says that Jesus has come from God? How does Jesus give him a different understanding of what it means to come from God?

• John 3:3: Jesus's response. How do you explain the disconnect between Nicodemus’s greeting in verse 2 and Jesus’ response in this verse? Is he rebuking Nicodemus for misunderstanding Christ’s mission, admiring Christ’s miracles but not seeing that he himself must be born again? Or, is Jesus responding to an unuttered question in Nicodemus’s heart?

• John 3:3: Verily, verily. Why does Jesus begin what he says with “verily, verily,” or—literally “amen, amen”? The word “amen” is used by both individuals and the community as a whole in the Old Testament, and it is used to confirm the acceptance of a task given to human beings by God (e.g., 1 Kgs 1:36), to confirm the application of a divine curse (e.g., Num 5:22; Deut 27:15ff.; Jer 11:5; and Neh 5:13), and to verify the praise of God (e.g., 1 Chr 16:36 and Neh 8:6). Thus “amen” means that which is sure and valid (Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, 1:335).

• John 3:3: Again. The Greek word translated “again” could have been translated “from above.” It is an ambiguous word. How does that ambiguity effect the conversation that follows?

• John 3:3: Kingdom. The Greek word translated “see” could also be translated “know.” As in Matt 3:2, the word translated “kingdom” could also be translated “reign.” How do we know the reign of God? Must we wait for death or the Second Coming? What are the types and shadows on this earth of that reign? What does Jesus tell us must happen for us to know the reign of God?

• John 3:3: Seeing. Nicodemus has seen Christ’s miracles (verse 2), but he has not seen the Kingdom of God (verse 3). What does that teach us?

• John 3:4: Nicodemus's misunderstanding. How does Nicodemus misunderstand what Jesus has said to him? What does the sheer grotesqueness of his Nicodemus’s interpretation of Jesus’ remark tell us about Nicodemus?

• John 3:4: Nicodemus's birth. Did Nicodemus believe that his first birth had conveyed spiritual advantages on him? What have the Pharisees said to John the Baptist about their birth? (Compare Matt 3:7, Luke 3:8, and the JST version of Luke 3:8.) Might that explain Nicodemus’s misunderstanding? If Nicodemus does believe that his first birth gave him a spiritual advantage over others, why would Jesus’ teaching have been shocking?

• John 3:5: Comparison to verse 3. Are the differences between what Jesus says here and what he said in verse 3 important? Does he say something new here?

• John 3:5: Born of water. We understand “born of the water” to refer to baptism. To what else might it refer? How would we decide between these possible meanings? Does the fact that what the King James version translates “again” in verse 3 could also have been translated “from above” help us decide? Do we need to decide between them? How is the teaching of this verse connected to John the Baptist’s teaching (Matt 3:11, Mark 1:8, and Luke 3:16)?

• John 3:5: Begotten? The word “born” can also be translated “begotten”: “Except a man be begotten of water and of the Spirit.” What does it mean to be begotten of the water? of the Spirit? Does Ps 2:7 shed any light on what Jesus is saying to Nicodemus?

• John 3:5: Cannot enter. “He cannot enter” translates a Greek phrase that means “he has no power to enter.” By what power do we enter the kingdom of God?

• John 3:5: Enter the kingdom of God. What does it mean to “enter the kingdom of God”? Is there more than one meaning? If you can think of more than one possible meaning, consider each meaning and ask yourself when, according to each meaning, one enters the kingdom or reign of God.

• John 3:6: How can we relate John 1:14 to what Jesus says here? What about John 6:63? Does Gen 2:7 have anything to do with what Jesus is teaching here? 2 Cor 4:18? (See also Job 10:9-12 and Job 33:4.)

• John 3:7-8: Thou vs. y'all. Why does Jesus use the plural of “you” rather than its singular in verse 7? (We don’t distinguish the two, but Greek does.) Why does he switch back to the singular “you” in verse 8? How are the ideas of these two verses connected?

• John 3:7-8: New lineage? We can understand the phrase “be born again” to mean “get a new lineage or genealogy.” What is the genealogy of one born of the Spirit?

• John 3:7-8: Spirit and wind. In both Aramaic (the everyday language of Palestine during Jesus’ time) and Greek (the language in which the gospel of John was written), the word translated “Spirit” can also be translated “breath” or “wind.” It can refer to the breath of God, given to Adam (Gen 2:7). What does it mean to say that the wind/Spirit/breath goes where it desires or wills? How does the desire of the Spirit differ from the desire of the flesh? How is the nature of the Spirit’s desire relevant to the rebirth that Jesus says must occur?

• John 3:7-8: Nicodemus's beliefs. What is Jesus teaching Nicodemus? How does that teaching compare to what Nicodemus, as a Pharisee, believed? How does that teaching apply to us? Compare what Jesus says in verse 8 with Eccl 11:5.

• John 3:9-10: How can these things be? When Nicodemus says “How can these things be?” he is asking “How can this happen?” or “How are these things possible?” What does he find astonishing?

• John 3:9-10: Teacher and teachee. The word translated “master” might be better translated “teacher.” It is a form of the same word translated “disciple.” The relation between the two words in Greek is comparable to “teacher” and “teachee” in English. Nicodemus has addressed Jesus as a teacher, taking the part of a disciple. Is Jesus doing the same thing here? If not, why does he point out that Nicodemus is a teacher? If he is, why and what does he mean? Where does Jesus suppose that Nicodemus would have learned the things that Jesus is teaching? Does Jesus believe that the teachings he has just rehearsed to Nicodemus are hidden or new? What criticism is Jesus making of Nicodemus by calling him a teacher and asking the question of verse 10? To what does “these things” refer?

• John 3:9-10: New birth. The idea that the metaphor of birth describes conversion seems to have been part of Jewish thinking at the time of Jesus, as these two sayings from first- or second-century Judaism show: “When someone brings a man under the wings of the Shekinah [i.e., converts him to Judaism], it is counted as though he had created and fashioned and formed him” (from Midrash on the Song of Solomon); also: “A proselyte just converted is like a child just born” (from the Babylonian Talmud; see Theological Dictionary of the New Testament 1:666.) Nicodemus would surely have known this. So what would he have found surprising in Jesus’ teaching? Is it the same thing that the Pharisees who went to John the Baptist found surprising (Matt 3:7, Luke 3:8, Luke 3:8)?

• John 3:9-10: Astonished at miracles. We can infer from verse 2 that Nicodemus marveled at—was astonished at—the miracles that Jesus performed (cf. Matt 8:27; Matt 9:8, 33; Matt 15:31; Matt 21:20; Mark 2:12; Luke 5:26, Luke 9:43), but Jesus said nothing about that. Here, however, he tells Nicodemus not to marvel: "don’t marvel at the teaching that you must be born again." Why shouldn’t he be astonished at that teaching? Does the story of the tempation of Christ (Matthew 4) perhaps help explain why Jesus has nothing to say about Nicodemus’s astonishment at the miracles but responds to his astonishment at the teaching about spiritual rebirth?

• John 3:16. "So loved the world" could be read as “loved the world to such a degree” or “loved the world in this way.” What difference does this make?

• John 3:21: Do works precede conversion? It seems this verse suggests that works precede conversion. That is, the phrase "he that doeth truth cometh to the light" suggests that those that come to the light are those that are already doing what is right (cf. verse 19 where "men loved darkness . . . because their deeds were evil"). Doesn't this suggest a circularity problem regarding conversion, that only those that do good will receive the light, and yet only by receiving the light can we do good (cf. Ether 4:12; see also a similar circularity problem in Alma 36:4-5 regarding Alma's unworthiness and his coming to a knowledge that he was unworthy to receive)?

• John 3:33. What does this mean "set to his seal that God is true"?

Resources

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Notes

Footnotes are not required but are encouraged for factual assertions that average readers cannot easily evaluate for themselves (such as the date of King Solomon’s death or the nuanced definition of a Greek word). In contrast, insights rarely benefit from footnoting, and the focus of this page should always remain on the scriptures themselves rather than what someone has said about them. Links are actively encouraged on all sections of this page, and links to authoritative sources (such as Strong's Bible Concordance or the Joseph Smith Papers) are preferable to footnotes.

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Summary

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Discussion

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• John 2:13-17. Only in John does the “cleansing of the temple” occur at the beginning of Jesus’ public ministry: the other three Gospels place it as one of the last of Jesus’ actions before his arrest. This may be because A) there really was only one cleansing, which occurs later, but John mentions it earlier in order to use it as a symbol of Jesus’ entire mission, or B) there were two cleansings: an early one that John describes (but that Jesus “got away with”) and a later one that finally provoked action from the high priest, whose anger toward Jesus had been festering for some time.

• John 2:23: Passover. The best description of Passover is found in Exodus 12-13 and is celebrated in commemoration of the children of Israel exiting from Israel. It was also celebrated by Joshua and the people of Israel upon entering the land of Canaan (Joshua 5:10-12) connecting it to the arrival of Israel to the Promised Land. In Exodus Passover is portrayed as a family observance taking place primarily in the home. Immediately following the Passover was the seven day feast of unleavened bread and on the seventh day of that feast a pilgrimage to a holy place is made. The two occasions appear to have been separate events, though directly concurrent and related.

In Deuteronomy 16:1-8, Passover becomes an event requiring pilgrimage. "Thou mayest not sacrifice the passover within any of thy agates, which the LORD thy God giveth thee but at the place which the LORD thy God shall choose to place his name in, there thou shalt sacrifice the passover at even, at the going down of the sun, at the season that thou camest forth out of Egypt." (Deut 16:5-6) It is in this fashion that Hezekiah (2 Chr 30) and Josiah (2 Chr 35:1-19) performed the Passover, and the way in which it appears to have performed in the New Testament. It is this latter procedure which Christ follows in the New Testament and his apparent purpose for coming to Jerusalem during this time. During this time many of the people would have been gathered in Jerusalem and would have been a prime time for ministering.

Passover is an important event, but it is not, as believed by some, the most important event of the year. That distinction belongs more to the Day of Atonement (Yom Kippur) than to Passover. Even so, Passover plays a prominent role in NT scripture associated with the sacrifice of Christ himself. (see John 13:1; 19:14, 31, 42).

(see Eerdmans Dictionary of the Bible, ed. David Freedman, pg. 1013-1014).

• John 3:1: Nicodemus. The name “Nicodemus” means “conqueror” and it was a common name. We know little about Nicodemus. We know that he was a Pharisee because this verse tells that he was. We know that he was some kind of ruler, though we don’t know what kind, because this verse tell us that he was. Many have speculated that Nicodemus was a member of the Sanhedrin, but we have little evidence for that speculation and we know little about the Sanhedrin. If he was a member of the Sanhedrin, then he was a member of the ruling body of Jerusalem, a Pharisee, and a teacher (scribe). He was the height of what most people would have taken to be a good Jew, and he probably would be one of those referred to in John 12:42.

• John 3:1: Man. Notice the use of this term at the end of the previous chapter, John 2:25.

• John 3:5: Born. The Greek word gennao seems to have a connotation of conversion for Jews.

• John 3:5: Again. The Greek word anwyen can mean either "above" (particularly relating to God) or "again."

• John 3:5: Symbolism of water. Water here may refer to a number of scriptural symbolic metaphors: baptism; the fountain of life; the Red Sea and Jordan River, both of which have important symbolic meaning in the Old Testament; water which quenches thirst during a drought; water that causes things to grow; ritual cleansings (incl. Namaan's being healed by bathing in the River Jordan); the waters referred to in creation. See also Ezek 36. This may also be related to mikvah in Judaism.

• John 3:5: Water and Spirit. Water is an important element in physical birth, so the reference here may be to the birth of our spirit occurring in a way that is analogous to our physical birth. However, scholars seem to favor reading "water and Spirit" together rather than separately. That is, in order to be born from above ("again" in verse 7), one must be born of both water and the Spirit: being born of water and the Spirit is a restatement of being born again. (See this comment on Jim F.'s Sunday school lesson.) This might also be echoing the way that the Spirit of God is described as brooding on the water in the creation account(s).

• John 3:6: Flesh is flesh. This may just mean "don't set your heart on the world," or this may refer to genealogical superiority as expressed in Matt 3:9 and Luke 3:8. (See also the cross-references in the questions above.)

• John 3:8: Spirit and wind. The word-play between "spirit" and "wind" (see question above) also seems to be used in Eccl 11:4ff, Isa 44:3-4, and Ezek 37:1-14. The passage in Ecclesiastes seems to emphasize the necessity of faith in the face of uncertainty: a farmer who waits for the perfect moment to plant so the wind won't blow away the seed, may never plant the seed because he is always waiting for the perfect moment!

The wind-spirit word play here may be emphasizing the unpredictability of the Spirit, the idea that no matter how much we study and think and plan, if we are truly to be born again, we must be responsive in the very moment the Spirit calls us, to whatever it calls us to do, no matter how absurd that call may be (e.g. to sacrifice our favorite son like Abraham, or to cut off someone’s head like Nephi, etc.). This seems to complement nicely Paul’s phrase “the law/letter killeth, but the Spirit giveth life” in 2 Cor 3:6. There may also be significance to the fact that the Spirit is heard and not seen, since looking for signs is usually set in contrast to those who hearken to the Spirit and exercise faith (see, for example, Alma 32:17ff). Also, this may be an oblique reference to the way in which Elijah and Melchizekek seem to appear and disappear whenever and wherever they want.

• John 3:13: Interpretational gloss? See comments 8-9 on Jim F.'s Sunday school post regarding the possibility of this being an interpretational gloss.

• John 3:16, 18: Only begotten. The Greek word, monogenes, translated as "only begotten" in verses 16 and 18 is used to refer to Christ in the New Testament only in the Gospel of John. Elsewhere in the New Testament, as in Luke 8:42, monogenes is used to refer to an only son or daughter. The Greek word carries a strong connotation of uniqueness, and modern translations often used often use "unique son" or "one and only son" in translating these verses. However, the phrase "only begotten son" captures a sense of the Greek that is missing in some of the modern translations. The word monogenes can stand alone, as it does in John 1:14, to mean an only child. By using both monogenes and huios (translated as "son"), John is using redundancy to place an emphasis on the sonship of Jesus. Thus it may be safe to assume that when "only begotten son" is used in modern revelation (often written in an English style patterned after the King James Version) that there is an emphasis on Jesus being the son of God in both a unique and a real sense.

• John 3:25-30: The bridegroom. Regarding Christ as the bridegroom, see the discussion of the bride and bridegroom and the marriage supper of the Lamb in connection with Matt 25:1-13 (Parable of the Ten Virgins).

Unanswered questions

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• John 2:24-25. What do these two verses mean? It seems to have to do with God knowing the hearts of men, but beyond that, I'm not sure what is really meant.

Prompts for life application

This section is for prompts that suggest ways in which a passage can influence a person's life. Prompts may be appropriate either for private self reflection or for a class discussion. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Prompts for further study

This section is for prompts that invite us to think about a passage more deeply or in a new way. These are not necessarily questions that beg for answers, but rather prompts along the lines of "Have you ever thought about ..." Prompts are most helpful when they are developed individually, thoughtfully, and with enough background information to clearly indicate a particular direction for further study or thought. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:29. What is the "sin of the world"?

• John 1:47. In verse 1:47 it sounds like GUILE is a negative thing which Nathanael was free of, and yet in verse 46 it sounds like Nathanael was critical of the town of Nazareth and anybody who came from there. Still, in Alma 18:23, it sounds like Ammon's catching Lamoni "with guile" is a bad thing, yet he's doing a good thing in teaching him the gospel. How is GUILE being using here as it applies to Nathanael?

• John 2:6. What was the water set aside for? Why would the author include this detail?

• John 2:10. How do the governor’s (i.e. master of ceremonies) words play into the symbolism in verse 6?

• John 2:11. The author states that this was the beginning of the miracles that Jesus performed. (Note: he does not say that it was the beginning of Jesus’ ministry, which, of course, had already begun: Jesus had been baptizing.) How is this an appropriate way and occasion to begin his miracles? Note: Jesus expounds on this theme in Luke 4:26.

• John 2:14. Why were there merchants selling animals and changing money in the temple?

• John 2:19. What is significant about Jesus’ comparison of the temple to his body? How is Jesus’ body like the temple in Jerusalem? (See also verse 21.)

• John 3:1. What do we know about Nicodemus? How does this affect the way we read this story?

• John 3:2: By night. Why might Nicodemus have come to Jesus by night? Is Jesus doing something during the day that might have made it easier for Nicodemus to come at night? Is Nicodemus doing something during the day that might have made it easier for him to come at night? Might he have been trying to protect himself? Might he have been trying to protect Jesus? Is there any symbolic significance to the fact that Nicodemus came to Jesus out of the night. (Think about other ways that John uses the night in his gospel.)

• John 3:2: Rabbi. Why does Nicodemus call Jesus “Rabbi”? The word “rabbi” is a transliteration of a Hebrew term meaning “great.” In Jesus’ time it was used as a term of respect and it was primarily applied to the scribes—those who taught from and interpreted the scriptures—by their followers. Thus, “rabbi” was a term of respect that one used for one’s teacher. What is Nicodemus saying by calling Jesus a teacher? Why does Nicodemus us the plural, “we,” rather than the singular, “I”?

• John 3:2: Miracles. How does Nicodemus claim to know that Jesus has come from God? Do miracles prove that the person who works them has a divine origin? Is it relevant that, during the tempation in the desert, Jesus refused to work miracles as a proof of his divinity and power? Does Nicodemus’s confession help us understand him any better than we might without it?

• John 3:2: From God. What does Nicodemus mean when he says that Jesus has come from God? How does Jesus give him a different understanding of what it means to come from God?

• John 3:3: Jesus's response. How do you explain the disconnect between Nicodemus’s greeting in verse 2 and Jesus’ response in this verse? Is he rebuking Nicodemus for misunderstanding Christ’s mission, admiring Christ’s miracles but not seeing that he himself must be born again? Or, is Jesus responding to an unuttered question in Nicodemus’s heart?

• John 3:3: Verily, verily. Why does Jesus begin what he says with “verily, verily,” or—literally “amen, amen”? The word “amen” is used by both individuals and the community as a whole in the Old Testament, and it is used to confirm the acceptance of a task given to human beings by God (e.g., 1 Kgs 1:36), to confirm the application of a divine curse (e.g., Num 5:22; Deut 27:15ff.; Jer 11:5; and Neh 5:13), and to verify the praise of God (e.g., 1 Chr 16:36 and Neh 8:6). Thus “amen” means that which is sure and valid (Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, 1:335).

• John 3:3: Again. The Greek word translated “again” could have been translated “from above.” It is an ambiguous word. How does that ambiguity effect the conversation that follows?

• John 3:3: Kingdom. The Greek word translated “see” could also be translated “know.” As in Matt 3:2, the word translated “kingdom” could also be translated “reign.” How do we know the reign of God? Must we wait for death or the Second Coming? What are the types and shadows on this earth of that reign? What does Jesus tell us must happen for us to know the reign of God?

• John 3:3: Seeing. Nicodemus has seen Christ’s miracles (verse 2), but he has not seen the Kingdom of God (verse 3). What does that teach us?

• John 3:4: Nicodemus's misunderstanding. How does Nicodemus misunderstand what Jesus has said to him? What does the sheer grotesqueness of his Nicodemus’s interpretation of Jesus’ remark tell us about Nicodemus?

• John 3:4: Nicodemus's birth. Did Nicodemus believe that his first birth had conveyed spiritual advantages on him? What have the Pharisees said to John the Baptist about their birth? (Compare Matt 3:7, Luke 3:8, and the JST version of Luke 3:8.) Might that explain Nicodemus’s misunderstanding? If Nicodemus does believe that his first birth gave him a spiritual advantage over others, why would Jesus’ teaching have been shocking?

• John 3:5: Comparison to verse 3. Are the differences between what Jesus says here and what he said in verse 3 important? Does he say something new here?

• John 3:5: Born of water. We understand “born of the water” to refer to baptism. To what else might it refer? How would we decide between these possible meanings? Does the fact that what the King James version translates “again” in verse 3 could also have been translated “from above” help us decide? Do we need to decide between them? How is the teaching of this verse connected to John the Baptist’s teaching (Matt 3:11, Mark 1:8, and Luke 3:16)?

• John 3:5: Begotten? The word “born” can also be translated “begotten”: “Except a man be begotten of water and of the Spirit.” What does it mean to be begotten of the water? of the Spirit? Does Ps 2:7 shed any light on what Jesus is saying to Nicodemus?

• John 3:5: Cannot enter. “He cannot enter” translates a Greek phrase that means “he has no power to enter.” By what power do we enter the kingdom of God?

• John 3:5: Enter the kingdom of God. What does it mean to “enter the kingdom of God”? Is there more than one meaning? If you can think of more than one possible meaning, consider each meaning and ask yourself when, according to each meaning, one enters the kingdom or reign of God.

• John 3:6: How can we relate John 1:14 to what Jesus says here? What about John 6:63? Does Gen 2:7 have anything to do with what Jesus is teaching here? 2 Cor 4:18? (See also Job 10:9-12 and Job 33:4.)

• John 3:7-8: Thou vs. y'all. Why does Jesus use the plural of “you” rather than its singular in verse 7? (We don’t distinguish the two, but Greek does.) Why does he switch back to the singular “you” in verse 8? How are the ideas of these two verses connected?

• John 3:7-8: New lineage? We can understand the phrase “be born again” to mean “get a new lineage or genealogy.” What is the genealogy of one born of the Spirit?

• John 3:7-8: Spirit and wind. In both Aramaic (the everyday language of Palestine during Jesus’ time) and Greek (the language in which the gospel of John was written), the word translated “Spirit” can also be translated “breath” or “wind.” It can refer to the breath of God, given to Adam (Gen 2:7). What does it mean to say that the wind/Spirit/breath goes where it desires or wills? How does the desire of the Spirit differ from the desire of the flesh? How is the nature of the Spirit’s desire relevant to the rebirth that Jesus says must occur?

• John 3:7-8: Nicodemus's beliefs. What is Jesus teaching Nicodemus? How does that teaching compare to what Nicodemus, as a Pharisee, believed? How does that teaching apply to us? Compare what Jesus says in verse 8 with Eccl 11:5.

• John 3:9-10: How can these things be? When Nicodemus says “How can these things be?” he is asking “How can this happen?” or “How are these things possible?” What does he find astonishing?

• John 3:9-10: Teacher and teachee. The word translated “master” might be better translated “teacher.” It is a form of the same word translated “disciple.” The relation between the two words in Greek is comparable to “teacher” and “teachee” in English. Nicodemus has addressed Jesus as a teacher, taking the part of a disciple. Is Jesus doing the same thing here? If not, why does he point out that Nicodemus is a teacher? If he is, why and what does he mean? Where does Jesus suppose that Nicodemus would have learned the things that Jesus is teaching? Does Jesus believe that the teachings he has just rehearsed to Nicodemus are hidden or new? What criticism is Jesus making of Nicodemus by calling him a teacher and asking the question of verse 10? To what does “these things” refer?

• John 3:9-10: New birth. The idea that the metaphor of birth describes conversion seems to have been part of Jewish thinking at the time of Jesus, as these two sayings from first- or second-century Judaism show: “When someone brings a man under the wings of the Shekinah [i.e., converts him to Judaism], it is counted as though he had created and fashioned and formed him” (from Midrash on the Song of Solomon); also: “A proselyte just converted is like a child just born” (from the Babylonian Talmud; see Theological Dictionary of the New Testament 1:666.) Nicodemus would surely have known this. So what would he have found surprising in Jesus’ teaching? Is it the same thing that the Pharisees who went to John the Baptist found surprising (Matt 3:7, Luke 3:8, Luke 3:8)?

• John 3:9-10: Astonished at miracles. We can infer from verse 2 that Nicodemus marveled at—was astonished at—the miracles that Jesus performed (cf. Matt 8:27; Matt 9:8, 33; Matt 15:31; Matt 21:20; Mark 2:12; Luke 5:26, Luke 9:43), but Jesus said nothing about that. Here, however, he tells Nicodemus not to marvel: "don’t marvel at the teaching that you must be born again." Why shouldn’t he be astonished at that teaching? Does the story of the tempation of Christ (Matthew 4) perhaps help explain why Jesus has nothing to say about Nicodemus’s astonishment at the miracles but responds to his astonishment at the teaching about spiritual rebirth?

• John 3:16. "So loved the world" could be read as “loved the world to such a degree” or “loved the world in this way.” What difference does this make?

• John 3:21: Do works precede conversion? It seems this verse suggests that works precede conversion. That is, the phrase "he that doeth truth cometh to the light" suggests that those that come to the light are those that are already doing what is right (cf. verse 19 where "men loved darkness . . . because their deeds were evil"). Doesn't this suggest a circularity problem regarding conversion, that only those that do good will receive the light, and yet only by receiving the light can we do good (cf. Ether 4:12; see also a similar circularity problem in Alma 36:4-5 regarding Alma's unworthiness and his coming to a knowledge that he was unworthy to receive)?

• John 3:33. What does this mean "set to his seal that God is true"?

Resources

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Notes

Footnotes are not required but are encouraged for factual assertions that average readers cannot easily evaluate for themselves (such as the date of King Solomon’s death or the nuanced definition of a Greek word). In contrast, insights rarely benefit from footnoting, and the focus of this page should always remain on the scriptures themselves rather than what someone has said about them. Links are actively encouraged on all sections of this page, and links to authoritative sources (such as Strong's Bible Concordance or the Joseph Smith Papers) are preferable to footnotes.

Previous page: Chapters 1b-12                      Next page: Chapter 4

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Summary

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Discussion

This section is for detailed discussion such as the meaning of a symbol, how a doctrinal point is developed throughout a passage, or insights that can be further developed in the future. Contributions may range from polished paragraphs down to a single bullet point. The focus, however, should always be on understanding the scriptural text consistent with LDS doctrine. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 2:13-17. Only in John does the “cleansing of the temple” occur at the beginning of Jesus’ public ministry: the other three Gospels place it as one of the last of Jesus’ actions before his arrest. This may be because A) there really was only one cleansing, which occurs later, but John mentions it earlier in order to use it as a symbol of Jesus’ entire mission, or B) there were two cleansings: an early one that John describes (but that Jesus “got away with”) and a later one that finally provoked action from the high priest, whose anger toward Jesus had been festering for some time.

• John 2:23: Passover. The best description of Passover is found in Exodus 12-13 and is celebrated in commemoration of the children of Israel exiting from Israel. It was also celebrated by Joshua and the people of Israel upon entering the land of Canaan (Joshua 5:10-12) connecting it to the arrival of Israel to the Promised Land. In Exodus Passover is portrayed as a family observance taking place primarily in the home. Immediately following the Passover was the seven day feast of unleavened bread and on the seventh day of that feast a pilgrimage to a holy place is made. The two occasions appear to have been separate events, though directly concurrent and related.

In Deuteronomy 16:1-8, Passover becomes an event requiring pilgrimage. "Thou mayest not sacrifice the passover within any of thy agates, which the LORD thy God giveth thee but at the place which the LORD thy God shall choose to place his name in, there thou shalt sacrifice the passover at even, at the going down of the sun, at the season that thou camest forth out of Egypt." (Deut 16:5-6) It is in this fashion that Hezekiah (2 Chr 30) and Josiah (2 Chr 35:1-19) performed the Passover, and the way in which it appears to have performed in the New Testament. It is this latter procedure which Christ follows in the New Testament and his apparent purpose for coming to Jerusalem during this time. During this time many of the people would have been gathered in Jerusalem and would have been a prime time for ministering.

Passover is an important event, but it is not, as believed by some, the most important event of the year. That distinction belongs more to the Day of Atonement (Yom Kippur) than to Passover. Even so, Passover plays a prominent role in NT scripture associated with the sacrifice of Christ himself. (see John 13:1; 19:14, 31, 42).

(see Eerdmans Dictionary of the Bible, ed. David Freedman, pg. 1013-1014).

• John 3:1: Nicodemus. The name “Nicodemus” means “conqueror” and it was a common name. We know little about Nicodemus. We know that he was a Pharisee because this verse tells that he was. We know that he was some kind of ruler, though we don’t know what kind, because this verse tell us that he was. Many have speculated that Nicodemus was a member of the Sanhedrin, but we have little evidence for that speculation and we know little about the Sanhedrin. If he was a member of the Sanhedrin, then he was a member of the ruling body of Jerusalem, a Pharisee, and a teacher (scribe). He was the height of what most people would have taken to be a good Jew, and he probably would be one of those referred to in John 12:42.

• John 3:1: Man. Notice the use of this term at the end of the previous chapter, John 2:25.

• John 3:5: Born. The Greek word gennao seems to have a connotation of conversion for Jews.

• John 3:5: Again. The Greek word anwyen can mean either "above" (particularly relating to God) or "again."

• John 3:5: Symbolism of water. Water here may refer to a number of scriptural symbolic metaphors: baptism; the fountain of life; the Red Sea and Jordan River, both of which have important symbolic meaning in the Old Testament; water which quenches thirst during a drought; water that causes things to grow; ritual cleansings (incl. Namaan's being healed by bathing in the River Jordan); the waters referred to in creation. See also Ezek 36. This may also be related to mikvah in Judaism.

• John 3:5: Water and Spirit. Water is an important element in physical birth, so the reference here may be to the birth of our spirit occurring in a way that is analogous to our physical birth. However, scholars seem to favor reading "water and Spirit" together rather than separately. That is, in order to be born from above ("again" in verse 7), one must be born of both water and the Spirit: being born of water and the Spirit is a restatement of being born again. (See this comment on Jim F.'s Sunday school lesson.) This might also be echoing the way that the Spirit of God is described as brooding on the water in the creation account(s).

• John 3:6: Flesh is flesh. This may just mean "don't set your heart on the world," or this may refer to genealogical superiority as expressed in Matt 3:9 and Luke 3:8. (See also the cross-references in the questions above.)

• John 3:8: Spirit and wind. The word-play between "spirit" and "wind" (see question above) also seems to be used in Eccl 11:4ff, Isa 44:3-4, and Ezek 37:1-14. The passage in Ecclesiastes seems to emphasize the necessity of faith in the face of uncertainty: a farmer who waits for the perfect moment to plant so the wind won't blow away the seed, may never plant the seed because he is always waiting for the perfect moment!

The wind-spirit word play here may be emphasizing the unpredictability of the Spirit, the idea that no matter how much we study and think and plan, if we are truly to be born again, we must be responsive in the very moment the Spirit calls us, to whatever it calls us to do, no matter how absurd that call may be (e.g. to sacrifice our favorite son like Abraham, or to cut off someone’s head like Nephi, etc.). This seems to complement nicely Paul’s phrase “the law/letter killeth, but the Spirit giveth life” in 2 Cor 3:6. There may also be significance to the fact that the Spirit is heard and not seen, since looking for signs is usually set in contrast to those who hearken to the Spirit and exercise faith (see, for example, Alma 32:17ff). Also, this may be an oblique reference to the way in which Elijah and Melchizekek seem to appear and disappear whenever and wherever they want.

• John 3:13: Interpretational gloss? See comments 8-9 on Jim F.'s Sunday school post regarding the possibility of this being an interpretational gloss.

• John 3:16, 18: Only begotten. The Greek word, monogenes, translated as "only begotten" in verses 16 and 18 is used to refer to Christ in the New Testament only in the Gospel of John. Elsewhere in the New Testament, as in Luke 8:42, monogenes is used to refer to an only son or daughter. The Greek word carries a strong connotation of uniqueness, and modern translations often used often use "unique son" or "one and only son" in translating these verses. However, the phrase "only begotten son" captures a sense of the Greek that is missing in some of the modern translations. The word monogenes can stand alone, as it does in John 1:14, to mean an only child. By using both monogenes and huios (translated as "son"), John is using redundancy to place an emphasis on the sonship of Jesus. Thus it may be safe to assume that when "only begotten son" is used in modern revelation (often written in an English style patterned after the King James Version) that there is an emphasis on Jesus being the son of God in both a unique and a real sense.

• John 3:25-30: The bridegroom. Regarding Christ as the bridegroom, see the discussion of the bride and bridegroom and the marriage supper of the Lamb in connection with Matt 25:1-13 (Parable of the Ten Virgins).

Unanswered questions

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• John 2:24-25. What do these two verses mean? It seems to have to do with God knowing the hearts of men, but beyond that, I'm not sure what is really meant.

Prompts for life application

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Prompts for further study

This section is for prompts that invite us to think about a passage more deeply or in a new way. These are not necessarily questions that beg for answers, but rather prompts along the lines of "Have you ever thought about ..." Prompts are most helpful when they are developed individually, thoughtfully, and with enough background information to clearly indicate a particular direction for further study or thought. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:29. What is the "sin of the world"?

• John 1:47. In verse 1:47 it sounds like GUILE is a negative thing which Nathanael was free of, and yet in verse 46 it sounds like Nathanael was critical of the town of Nazareth and anybody who came from there. Still, in Alma 18:23, it sounds like Ammon's catching Lamoni "with guile" is a bad thing, yet he's doing a good thing in teaching him the gospel. How is GUILE being using here as it applies to Nathanael?

• John 2:6. What was the water set aside for? Why would the author include this detail?

• John 2:10. How do the governor’s (i.e. master of ceremonies) words play into the symbolism in verse 6?

• John 2:11. The author states that this was the beginning of the miracles that Jesus performed. (Note: he does not say that it was the beginning of Jesus’ ministry, which, of course, had already begun: Jesus had been baptizing.) How is this an appropriate way and occasion to begin his miracles? Note: Jesus expounds on this theme in Luke 4:26.

• John 2:14. Why were there merchants selling animals and changing money in the temple?

• John 2:19. What is significant about Jesus’ comparison of the temple to his body? How is Jesus’ body like the temple in Jerusalem? (See also verse 21.)

• John 3:1. What do we know about Nicodemus? How does this affect the way we read this story?

• John 3:2: By night. Why might Nicodemus have come to Jesus by night? Is Jesus doing something during the day that might have made it easier for Nicodemus to come at night? Is Nicodemus doing something during the day that might have made it easier for him to come at night? Might he have been trying to protect himself? Might he have been trying to protect Jesus? Is there any symbolic significance to the fact that Nicodemus came to Jesus out of the night. (Think about other ways that John uses the night in his gospel.)

• John 3:2: Rabbi. Why does Nicodemus call Jesus “Rabbi”? The word “rabbi” is a transliteration of a Hebrew term meaning “great.” In Jesus’ time it was used as a term of respect and it was primarily applied to the scribes—those who taught from and interpreted the scriptures—by their followers. Thus, “rabbi” was a term of respect that one used for one’s teacher. What is Nicodemus saying by calling Jesus a teacher? Why does Nicodemus us the plural, “we,” rather than the singular, “I”?

• John 3:2: Miracles. How does Nicodemus claim to know that Jesus has come from God? Do miracles prove that the person who works them has a divine origin? Is it relevant that, during the tempation in the desert, Jesus refused to work miracles as a proof of his divinity and power? Does Nicodemus’s confession help us understand him any better than we might without it?

• John 3:2: From God. What does Nicodemus mean when he says that Jesus has come from God? How does Jesus give him a different understanding of what it means to come from God?

• John 3:3: Jesus's response. How do you explain the disconnect between Nicodemus’s greeting in verse 2 and Jesus’ response in this verse? Is he rebuking Nicodemus for misunderstanding Christ’s mission, admiring Christ’s miracles but not seeing that he himself must be born again? Or, is Jesus responding to an unuttered question in Nicodemus’s heart?

• John 3:3: Verily, verily. Why does Jesus begin what he says with “verily, verily,” or—literally “amen, amen”? The word “amen” is used by both individuals and the community as a whole in the Old Testament, and it is used to confirm the acceptance of a task given to human beings by God (e.g., 1 Kgs 1:36), to confirm the application of a divine curse (e.g., Num 5:22; Deut 27:15ff.; Jer 11:5; and Neh 5:13), and to verify the praise of God (e.g., 1 Chr 16:36 and Neh 8:6). Thus “amen” means that which is sure and valid (Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, 1:335).

• John 3:3: Again. The Greek word translated “again” could have been translated “from above.” It is an ambiguous word. How does that ambiguity effect the conversation that follows?

• John 3:3: Kingdom. The Greek word translated “see” could also be translated “know.” As in Matt 3:2, the word translated “kingdom” could also be translated “reign.” How do we know the reign of God? Must we wait for death or the Second Coming? What are the types and shadows on this earth of that reign? What does Jesus tell us must happen for us to know the reign of God?

• John 3:3: Seeing. Nicodemus has seen Christ’s miracles (verse 2), but he has not seen the Kingdom of God (verse 3). What does that teach us?

• John 3:4: Nicodemus's misunderstanding. How does Nicodemus misunderstand what Jesus has said to him? What does the sheer grotesqueness of his Nicodemus’s interpretation of Jesus’ remark tell us about Nicodemus?

• John 3:4: Nicodemus's birth. Did Nicodemus believe that his first birth had conveyed spiritual advantages on him? What have the Pharisees said to John the Baptist about their birth? (Compare Matt 3:7, Luke 3:8, and the JST version of Luke 3:8.) Might that explain Nicodemus’s misunderstanding? If Nicodemus does believe that his first birth gave him a spiritual advantage over others, why would Jesus’ teaching have been shocking?

• John 3:5: Comparison to verse 3. Are the differences between what Jesus says here and what he said in verse 3 important? Does he say something new here?

• John 3:5: Born of water. We understand “born of the water” to refer to baptism. To what else might it refer? How would we decide between these possible meanings? Does the fact that what the King James version translates “again” in verse 3 could also have been translated “from above” help us decide? Do we need to decide between them? How is the teaching of this verse connected to John the Baptist’s teaching (Matt 3:11, Mark 1:8, and Luke 3:16)?

• John 3:5: Begotten? The word “born” can also be translated “begotten”: “Except a man be begotten of water and of the Spirit.” What does it mean to be begotten of the water? of the Spirit? Does Ps 2:7 shed any light on what Jesus is saying to Nicodemus?

• John 3:5: Cannot enter. “He cannot enter” translates a Greek phrase that means “he has no power to enter.” By what power do we enter the kingdom of God?

• John 3:5: Enter the kingdom of God. What does it mean to “enter the kingdom of God”? Is there more than one meaning? If you can think of more than one possible meaning, consider each meaning and ask yourself when, according to each meaning, one enters the kingdom or reign of God.

• John 3:6: How can we relate John 1:14 to what Jesus says here? What about John 6:63? Does Gen 2:7 have anything to do with what Jesus is teaching here? 2 Cor 4:18? (See also Job 10:9-12 and Job 33:4.)

• John 3:7-8: Thou vs. y'all. Why does Jesus use the plural of “you” rather than its singular in verse 7? (We don’t distinguish the two, but Greek does.) Why does he switch back to the singular “you” in verse 8? How are the ideas of these two verses connected?

• John 3:7-8: New lineage? We can understand the phrase “be born again” to mean “get a new lineage or genealogy.” What is the genealogy of one born of the Spirit?

• John 3:7-8: Spirit and wind. In both Aramaic (the everyday language of Palestine during Jesus’ time) and Greek (the language in which the gospel of John was written), the word translated “Spirit” can also be translated “breath” or “wind.” It can refer to the breath of God, given to Adam (Gen 2:7). What does it mean to say that the wind/Spirit/breath goes where it desires or wills? How does the desire of the Spirit differ from the desire of the flesh? How is the nature of the Spirit’s desire relevant to the rebirth that Jesus says must occur?

• John 3:7-8: Nicodemus's beliefs. What is Jesus teaching Nicodemus? How does that teaching compare to what Nicodemus, as a Pharisee, believed? How does that teaching apply to us? Compare what Jesus says in verse 8 with Eccl 11:5.

• John 3:9-10: How can these things be? When Nicodemus says “How can these things be?” he is asking “How can this happen?” or “How are these things possible?” What does he find astonishing?

• John 3:9-10: Teacher and teachee. The word translated “master” might be better translated “teacher.” It is a form of the same word translated “disciple.” The relation between the two words in Greek is comparable to “teacher” and “teachee” in English. Nicodemus has addressed Jesus as a teacher, taking the part of a disciple. Is Jesus doing the same thing here? If not, why does he point out that Nicodemus is a teacher? If he is, why and what does he mean? Where does Jesus suppose that Nicodemus would have learned the things that Jesus is teaching? Does Jesus believe that the teachings he has just rehearsed to Nicodemus are hidden or new? What criticism is Jesus making of Nicodemus by calling him a teacher and asking the question of verse 10? To what does “these things” refer?

• John 3:9-10: New birth. The idea that the metaphor of birth describes conversion seems to have been part of Jewish thinking at the time of Jesus, as these two sayings from first- or second-century Judaism show: “When someone brings a man under the wings of the Shekinah [i.e., converts him to Judaism], it is counted as though he had created and fashioned and formed him” (from Midrash on the Song of Solomon); also: “A proselyte just converted is like a child just born” (from the Babylonian Talmud; see Theological Dictionary of the New Testament 1:666.) Nicodemus would surely have known this. So what would he have found surprising in Jesus’ teaching? Is it the same thing that the Pharisees who went to John the Baptist found surprising (Matt 3:7, Luke 3:8, Luke 3:8)?

• John 3:9-10: Astonished at miracles. We can infer from verse 2 that Nicodemus marveled at—was astonished at—the miracles that Jesus performed (cf. Matt 8:27; Matt 9:8, 33; Matt 15:31; Matt 21:20; Mark 2:12; Luke 5:26, Luke 9:43), but Jesus said nothing about that. Here, however, he tells Nicodemus not to marvel: "don’t marvel at the teaching that you must be born again." Why shouldn’t he be astonished at that teaching? Does the story of the tempation of Christ (Matthew 4) perhaps help explain why Jesus has nothing to say about Nicodemus’s astonishment at the miracles but responds to his astonishment at the teaching about spiritual rebirth?

• John 3:16. "So loved the world" could be read as “loved the world to such a degree” or “loved the world in this way.” What difference does this make?

• John 3:21: Do works precede conversion? It seems this verse suggests that works precede conversion. That is, the phrase "he that doeth truth cometh to the light" suggests that those that come to the light are those that are already doing what is right (cf. verse 19 where "men loved darkness . . . because their deeds were evil"). Doesn't this suggest a circularity problem regarding conversion, that only those that do good will receive the light, and yet only by receiving the light can we do good (cf. Ether 4:12; see also a similar circularity problem in Alma 36:4-5 regarding Alma's unworthiness and his coming to a knowledge that he was unworthy to receive)?

• John 3:33. What does this mean "set to his seal that God is true"?

Resources

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Notes

Footnotes are not required but are encouraged for factual assertions that average readers cannot easily evaluate for themselves (such as the date of King Solomon’s death or the nuanced definition of a Greek word). In contrast, insights rarely benefit from footnoting, and the focus of this page should always remain on the scriptures themselves rather than what someone has said about them. Links are actively encouraged on all sections of this page, and links to authoritative sources (such as Strong's Bible Concordance or the Joseph Smith Papers) are preferable to footnotes.

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Summary

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Discussion

This section is for detailed discussion such as the meaning of a symbol, how a doctrinal point is developed throughout a passage, or insights that can be further developed in the future. Contributions may range from polished paragraphs down to a single bullet point. The focus, however, should always be on understanding the scriptural text consistent with LDS doctrine. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 2:13-17. Only in John does the “cleansing of the temple” occur at the beginning of Jesus’ public ministry: the other three Gospels place it as one of the last of Jesus’ actions before his arrest. This may be because A) there really was only one cleansing, which occurs later, but John mentions it earlier in order to use it as a symbol of Jesus’ entire mission, or B) there were two cleansings: an early one that John describes (but that Jesus “got away with”) and a later one that finally provoked action from the high priest, whose anger toward Jesus had been festering for some time.

• John 2:23: Passover. The best description of Passover is found in Exodus 12-13 and is celebrated in commemoration of the children of Israel exiting from Israel. It was also celebrated by Joshua and the people of Israel upon entering the land of Canaan (Joshua 5:10-12) connecting it to the arrival of Israel to the Promised Land. In Exodus Passover is portrayed as a family observance taking place primarily in the home. Immediately following the Passover was the seven day feast of unleavened bread and on the seventh day of that feast a pilgrimage to a holy place is made. The two occasions appear to have been separate events, though directly concurrent and related.

In Deuteronomy 16:1-8, Passover becomes an event requiring pilgrimage. "Thou mayest not sacrifice the passover within any of thy agates, which the LORD thy God giveth thee but at the place which the LORD thy God shall choose to place his name in, there thou shalt sacrifice the passover at even, at the going down of the sun, at the season that thou camest forth out of Egypt." (Deut 16:5-6) It is in this fashion that Hezekiah (2 Chr 30) and Josiah (2 Chr 35:1-19) performed the Passover, and the way in which it appears to have performed in the New Testament. It is this latter procedure which Christ follows in the New Testament and his apparent purpose for coming to Jerusalem during this time. During this time many of the people would have been gathered in Jerusalem and would have been a prime time for ministering.

Passover is an important event, but it is not, as believed by some, the most important event of the year. That distinction belongs more to the Day of Atonement (Yom Kippur) than to Passover. Even so, Passover plays a prominent role in NT scripture associated with the sacrifice of Christ himself. (see John 13:1; 19:14, 31, 42).

(see Eerdmans Dictionary of the Bible, ed. David Freedman, pg. 1013-1014).

• John 3:1: Nicodemus. The name “Nicodemus” means “conqueror” and it was a common name. We know little about Nicodemus. We know that he was a Pharisee because this verse tells that he was. We know that he was some kind of ruler, though we don’t know what kind, because this verse tell us that he was. Many have speculated that Nicodemus was a member of the Sanhedrin, but we have little evidence for that speculation and we know little about the Sanhedrin. If he was a member of the Sanhedrin, then he was a member of the ruling body of Jerusalem, a Pharisee, and a teacher (scribe). He was the height of what most people would have taken to be a good Jew, and he probably would be one of those referred to in John 12:42.

• John 3:1: Man. Notice the use of this term at the end of the previous chapter, John 2:25.

• John 3:5: Born. The Greek word gennao seems to have a connotation of conversion for Jews.

• John 3:5: Again. The Greek word anwyen can mean either "above" (particularly relating to God) or "again."

• John 3:5: Symbolism of water. Water here may refer to a number of scriptural symbolic metaphors: baptism; the fountain of life; the Red Sea and Jordan River, both of which have important symbolic meaning in the Old Testament; water which quenches thirst during a drought; water that causes things to grow; ritual cleansings (incl. Namaan's being healed by bathing in the River Jordan); the waters referred to in creation. See also Ezek 36. This may also be related to mikvah in Judaism.

• John 3:5: Water and Spirit. Water is an important element in physical birth, so the reference here may be to the birth of our spirit occurring in a way that is analogous to our physical birth. However, scholars seem to favor reading "water and Spirit" together rather than separately. That is, in order to be born from above ("again" in verse 7), one must be born of both water and the Spirit: being born of water and the Spirit is a restatement of being born again. (See this comment on Jim F.'s Sunday school lesson.) This might also be echoing the way that the Spirit of God is described as brooding on the water in the creation account(s).

• John 3:6: Flesh is flesh. This may just mean "don't set your heart on the world," or this may refer to genealogical superiority as expressed in Matt 3:9 and Luke 3:8. (See also the cross-references in the questions above.)

• John 3:8: Spirit and wind. The word-play between "spirit" and "wind" (see question above) also seems to be used in Eccl 11:4ff, Isa 44:3-4, and Ezek 37:1-14. The passage in Ecclesiastes seems to emphasize the necessity of faith in the face of uncertainty: a farmer who waits for the perfect moment to plant so the wind won't blow away the seed, may never plant the seed because he is always waiting for the perfect moment!

The wind-spirit word play here may be emphasizing the unpredictability of the Spirit, the idea that no matter how much we study and think and plan, if we are truly to be born again, we must be responsive in the very moment the Spirit calls us, to whatever it calls us to do, no matter how absurd that call may be (e.g. to sacrifice our favorite son like Abraham, or to cut off someone’s head like Nephi, etc.). This seems to complement nicely Paul’s phrase “the law/letter killeth, but the Spirit giveth life” in 2 Cor 3:6. There may also be significance to the fact that the Spirit is heard and not seen, since looking for signs is usually set in contrast to those who hearken to the Spirit and exercise faith (see, for example, Alma 32:17ff). Also, this may be an oblique reference to the way in which Elijah and Melchizekek seem to appear and disappear whenever and wherever they want.

• John 3:13: Interpretational gloss? See comments 8-9 on Jim F.'s Sunday school post regarding the possibility of this being an interpretational gloss.

• John 3:16, 18: Only begotten. The Greek word, monogenes, translated as "only begotten" in verses 16 and 18 is used to refer to Christ in the New Testament only in the Gospel of John. Elsewhere in the New Testament, as in Luke 8:42, monogenes is used to refer to an only son or daughter. The Greek word carries a strong connotation of uniqueness, and modern translations often used often use "unique son" or "one and only son" in translating these verses. However, the phrase "only begotten son" captures a sense of the Greek that is missing in some of the modern translations. The word monogenes can stand alone, as it does in John 1:14, to mean an only child. By using both monogenes and huios (translated as "son"), John is using redundancy to place an emphasis on the sonship of Jesus. Thus it may be safe to assume that when "only begotten son" is used in modern revelation (often written in an English style patterned after the King James Version) that there is an emphasis on Jesus being the son of God in both a unique and a real sense.

• John 3:25-30: The bridegroom. Regarding Christ as the bridegroom, see the discussion of the bride and bridegroom and the marriage supper of the Lamb in connection with Matt 25:1-13 (Parable of the Ten Virgins).

Unanswered questions

This section is for questions along the lines of "I still don't understand ..." Please do not be shy. The point of these questions is to identify things that still need to be addressed on this page. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 2:24-25. What do these two verses mean? It seems to have to do with God knowing the hearts of men, but beyond that, I'm not sure what is really meant.

Prompts for life application

This section is for prompts that suggest ways in which a passage can influence a person's life. Prompts may be appropriate either for private self reflection or for a class discussion. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Prompts for further study

This section is for prompts that invite us to think about a passage more deeply or in a new way. These are not necessarily questions that beg for answers, but rather prompts along the lines of "Have you ever thought about ..." Prompts are most helpful when they are developed individually, thoughtfully, and with enough background information to clearly indicate a particular direction for further study or thought. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:29. What is the "sin of the world"?

• John 1:47. In verse 1:47 it sounds like GUILE is a negative thing which Nathanael was free of, and yet in verse 46 it sounds like Nathanael was critical of the town of Nazareth and anybody who came from there. Still, in Alma 18:23, it sounds like Ammon's catching Lamoni "with guile" is a bad thing, yet he's doing a good thing in teaching him the gospel. How is GUILE being using here as it applies to Nathanael?

• John 2:6. What was the water set aside for? Why would the author include this detail?

• John 2:10. How do the governor’s (i.e. master of ceremonies) words play into the symbolism in verse 6?

• John 2:11. The author states that this was the beginning of the miracles that Jesus performed. (Note: he does not say that it was the beginning of Jesus’ ministry, which, of course, had already begun: Jesus had been baptizing.) How is this an appropriate way and occasion to begin his miracles? Note: Jesus expounds on this theme in Luke 4:26.

• John 2:14. Why were there merchants selling animals and changing money in the temple?

• John 2:19. What is significant about Jesus’ comparison of the temple to his body? How is Jesus’ body like the temple in Jerusalem? (See also verse 21.)

• John 3:1. What do we know about Nicodemus? How does this affect the way we read this story?

• John 3:2: By night. Why might Nicodemus have come to Jesus by night? Is Jesus doing something during the day that might have made it easier for Nicodemus to come at night? Is Nicodemus doing something during the day that might have made it easier for him to come at night? Might he have been trying to protect himself? Might he have been trying to protect Jesus? Is there any symbolic significance to the fact that Nicodemus came to Jesus out of the night. (Think about other ways that John uses the night in his gospel.)

• John 3:2: Rabbi. Why does Nicodemus call Jesus “Rabbi”? The word “rabbi” is a transliteration of a Hebrew term meaning “great.” In Jesus’ time it was used as a term of respect and it was primarily applied to the scribes—those who taught from and interpreted the scriptures—by their followers. Thus, “rabbi” was a term of respect that one used for one’s teacher. What is Nicodemus saying by calling Jesus a teacher? Why does Nicodemus us the plural, “we,” rather than the singular, “I”?

• John 3:2: Miracles. How does Nicodemus claim to know that Jesus has come from God? Do miracles prove that the person who works them has a divine origin? Is it relevant that, during the tempation in the desert, Jesus refused to work miracles as a proof of his divinity and power? Does Nicodemus’s confession help us understand him any better than we might without it?

• John 3:2: From God. What does Nicodemus mean when he says that Jesus has come from God? How does Jesus give him a different understanding of what it means to come from God?

• John 3:3: Jesus's response. How do you explain the disconnect between Nicodemus’s greeting in verse 2 and Jesus’ response in this verse? Is he rebuking Nicodemus for misunderstanding Christ’s mission, admiring Christ’s miracles but not seeing that he himself must be born again? Or, is Jesus responding to an unuttered question in Nicodemus’s heart?

• John 3:3: Verily, verily. Why does Jesus begin what he says with “verily, verily,” or—literally “amen, amen”? The word “amen” is used by both individuals and the community as a whole in the Old Testament, and it is used to confirm the acceptance of a task given to human beings by God (e.g., 1 Kgs 1:36), to confirm the application of a divine curse (e.g., Num 5:22; Deut 27:15ff.; Jer 11:5; and Neh 5:13), and to verify the praise of God (e.g., 1 Chr 16:36 and Neh 8:6). Thus “amen” means that which is sure and valid (Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, 1:335).

• John 3:3: Again. The Greek word translated “again” could have been translated “from above.” It is an ambiguous word. How does that ambiguity effect the conversation that follows?

• John 3:3: Kingdom. The Greek word translated “see” could also be translated “know.” As in Matt 3:2, the word translated “kingdom” could also be translated “reign.” How do we know the reign of God? Must we wait for death or the Second Coming? What are the types and shadows on this earth of that reign? What does Jesus tell us must happen for us to know the reign of God?

• John 3:3: Seeing. Nicodemus has seen Christ’s miracles (verse 2), but he has not seen the Kingdom of God (verse 3). What does that teach us?

• John 3:4: Nicodemus's misunderstanding. How does Nicodemus misunderstand what Jesus has said to him? What does the sheer grotesqueness of his Nicodemus’s interpretation of Jesus’ remark tell us about Nicodemus?

• John 3:4: Nicodemus's birth. Did Nicodemus believe that his first birth had conveyed spiritual advantages on him? What have the Pharisees said to John the Baptist about their birth? (Compare Matt 3:7, Luke 3:8, and the JST version of Luke 3:8.) Might that explain Nicodemus’s misunderstanding? If Nicodemus does believe that his first birth gave him a spiritual advantage over others, why would Jesus’ teaching have been shocking?

• John 3:5: Comparison to verse 3. Are the differences between what Jesus says here and what he said in verse 3 important? Does he say something new here?

• John 3:5: Born of water. We understand “born of the water” to refer to baptism. To what else might it refer? How would we decide between these possible meanings? Does the fact that what the King James version translates “again” in verse 3 could also have been translated “from above” help us decide? Do we need to decide between them? How is the teaching of this verse connected to John the Baptist’s teaching (Matt 3:11, Mark 1:8, and Luke 3:16)?

• John 3:5: Begotten? The word “born” can also be translated “begotten”: “Except a man be begotten of water and of the Spirit.” What does it mean to be begotten of the water? of the Spirit? Does Ps 2:7 shed any light on what Jesus is saying to Nicodemus?

• John 3:5: Cannot enter. “He cannot enter” translates a Greek phrase that means “he has no power to enter.” By what power do we enter the kingdom of God?

• John 3:5: Enter the kingdom of God. What does it mean to “enter the kingdom of God”? Is there more than one meaning? If you can think of more than one possible meaning, consider each meaning and ask yourself when, according to each meaning, one enters the kingdom or reign of God.

• John 3:6: How can we relate John 1:14 to what Jesus says here? What about John 6:63? Does Gen 2:7 have anything to do with what Jesus is teaching here? 2 Cor 4:18? (See also Job 10:9-12 and Job 33:4.)

• John 3:7-8: Thou vs. y'all. Why does Jesus use the plural of “you” rather than its singular in verse 7? (We don’t distinguish the two, but Greek does.) Why does he switch back to the singular “you” in verse 8? How are the ideas of these two verses connected?

• John 3:7-8: New lineage? We can understand the phrase “be born again” to mean “get a new lineage or genealogy.” What is the genealogy of one born of the Spirit?

• John 3:7-8: Spirit and wind. In both Aramaic (the everyday language of Palestine during Jesus’ time) and Greek (the language in which the gospel of John was written), the word translated “Spirit” can also be translated “breath” or “wind.” It can refer to the breath of God, given to Adam (Gen 2:7). What does it mean to say that the wind/Spirit/breath goes where it desires or wills? How does the desire of the Spirit differ from the desire of the flesh? How is the nature of the Spirit’s desire relevant to the rebirth that Jesus says must occur?

• John 3:7-8: Nicodemus's beliefs. What is Jesus teaching Nicodemus? How does that teaching compare to what Nicodemus, as a Pharisee, believed? How does that teaching apply to us? Compare what Jesus says in verse 8 with Eccl 11:5.

• John 3:9-10: How can these things be? When Nicodemus says “How can these things be?” he is asking “How can this happen?” or “How are these things possible?” What does he find astonishing?

• John 3:9-10: Teacher and teachee. The word translated “master” might be better translated “teacher.” It is a form of the same word translated “disciple.” The relation between the two words in Greek is comparable to “teacher” and “teachee” in English. Nicodemus has addressed Jesus as a teacher, taking the part of a disciple. Is Jesus doing the same thing here? If not, why does he point out that Nicodemus is a teacher? If he is, why and what does he mean? Where does Jesus suppose that Nicodemus would have learned the things that Jesus is teaching? Does Jesus believe that the teachings he has just rehearsed to Nicodemus are hidden or new? What criticism is Jesus making of Nicodemus by calling him a teacher and asking the question of verse 10? To what does “these things” refer?

• John 3:9-10: New birth. The idea that the metaphor of birth describes conversion seems to have been part of Jewish thinking at the time of Jesus, as these two sayings from first- or second-century Judaism show: “When someone brings a man under the wings of the Shekinah [i.e., converts him to Judaism], it is counted as though he had created and fashioned and formed him” (from Midrash on the Song of Solomon); also: “A proselyte just converted is like a child just born” (from the Babylonian Talmud; see Theological Dictionary of the New Testament 1:666.) Nicodemus would surely have known this. So what would he have found surprising in Jesus’ teaching? Is it the same thing that the Pharisees who went to John the Baptist found surprising (Matt 3:7, Luke 3:8, Luke 3:8)?

• John 3:9-10: Astonished at miracles. We can infer from verse 2 that Nicodemus marveled at—was astonished at—the miracles that Jesus performed (cf. Matt 8:27; Matt 9:8, 33; Matt 15:31; Matt 21:20; Mark 2:12; Luke 5:26, Luke 9:43), but Jesus said nothing about that. Here, however, he tells Nicodemus not to marvel: "don’t marvel at the teaching that you must be born again." Why shouldn’t he be astonished at that teaching? Does the story of the tempation of Christ (Matthew 4) perhaps help explain why Jesus has nothing to say about Nicodemus’s astonishment at the miracles but responds to his astonishment at the teaching about spiritual rebirth?

• John 3:16. "So loved the world" could be read as “loved the world to such a degree” or “loved the world in this way.” What difference does this make?

• John 3:21: Do works precede conversion? It seems this verse suggests that works precede conversion. That is, the phrase "he that doeth truth cometh to the light" suggests that those that come to the light are those that are already doing what is right (cf. verse 19 where "men loved darkness . . . because their deeds were evil"). Doesn't this suggest a circularity problem regarding conversion, that only those that do good will receive the light, and yet only by receiving the light can we do good (cf. Ether 4:12; see also a similar circularity problem in Alma 36:4-5 regarding Alma's unworthiness and his coming to a knowledge that he was unworthy to receive)?

• John 3:33. What does this mean "set to his seal that God is true"?

Resources

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Notes

Footnotes are not required but are encouraged for factual assertions that average readers cannot easily evaluate for themselves (such as the date of King Solomon’s death or the nuanced definition of a Greek word). In contrast, insights rarely benefit from footnoting, and the focus of this page should always remain on the scriptures themselves rather than what someone has said about them. Links are actively encouraged on all sections of this page, and links to authoritative sources (such as Strong's Bible Concordance or the Joseph Smith Papers) are preferable to footnotes.

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Summary

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Discussion

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• John 2:13-17. Only in John does the “cleansing of the temple” occur at the beginning of Jesus’ public ministry: the other three Gospels place it as one of the last of Jesus’ actions before his arrest. This may be because A) there really was only one cleansing, which occurs later, but John mentions it earlier in order to use it as a symbol of Jesus’ entire mission, or B) there were two cleansings: an early one that John describes (but that Jesus “got away with”) and a later one that finally provoked action from the high priest, whose anger toward Jesus had been festering for some time.

• John 2:23: Passover. The best description of Passover is found in Exodus 12-13 and is celebrated in commemoration of the children of Israel exiting from Israel. It was also celebrated by Joshua and the people of Israel upon entering the land of Canaan (Joshua 5:10-12) connecting it to the arrival of Israel to the Promised Land. In Exodus Passover is portrayed as a family observance taking place primarily in the home. Immediately following the Passover was the seven day feast of unleavened bread and on the seventh day of that feast a pilgrimage to a holy place is made. The two occasions appear to have been separate events, though directly concurrent and related.

In Deuteronomy 16:1-8, Passover becomes an event requiring pilgrimage. "Thou mayest not sacrifice the passover within any of thy agates, which the LORD thy God giveth thee but at the place which the LORD thy God shall choose to place his name in, there thou shalt sacrifice the passover at even, at the going down of the sun, at the season that thou camest forth out of Egypt." (Deut 16:5-6) It is in this fashion that Hezekiah (2 Chr 30) and Josiah (2 Chr 35:1-19) performed the Passover, and the way in which it appears to have performed in the New Testament. It is this latter procedure which Christ follows in the New Testament and his apparent purpose for coming to Jerusalem during this time. During this time many of the people would have been gathered in Jerusalem and would have been a prime time for ministering.

Passover is an important event, but it is not, as believed by some, the most important event of the year. That distinction belongs more to the Day of Atonement (Yom Kippur) than to Passover. Even so, Passover plays a prominent role in NT scripture associated with the sacrifice of Christ himself. (see John 13:1; 19:14, 31, 42).

(see Eerdmans Dictionary of the Bible, ed. David Freedman, pg. 1013-1014).

• John 3:1: Nicodemus. The name “Nicodemus” means “conqueror” and it was a common name. We know little about Nicodemus. We know that he was a Pharisee because this verse tells that he was. We know that he was some kind of ruler, though we don’t know what kind, because this verse tell us that he was. Many have speculated that Nicodemus was a member of the Sanhedrin, but we have little evidence for that speculation and we know little about the Sanhedrin. If he was a member of the Sanhedrin, then he was a member of the ruling body of Jerusalem, a Pharisee, and a teacher (scribe). He was the height of what most people would have taken to be a good Jew, and he probably would be one of those referred to in John 12:42.

• John 3:1: Man. Notice the use of this term at the end of the previous chapter, John 2:25.

• John 3:5: Born. The Greek word gennao seems to have a connotation of conversion for Jews.

• John 3:5: Again. The Greek word anwyen can mean either "above" (particularly relating to God) or "again."

• John 3:5: Symbolism of water. Water here may refer to a number of scriptural symbolic metaphors: baptism; the fountain of life; the Red Sea and Jordan River, both of which have important symbolic meaning in the Old Testament; water which quenches thirst during a drought; water that causes things to grow; ritual cleansings (incl. Namaan's being healed by bathing in the River Jordan); the waters referred to in creation. See also Ezek 36. This may also be related to mikvah in Judaism.

• John 3:5: Water and Spirit. Water is an important element in physical birth, so the reference here may be to the birth of our spirit occurring in a way that is analogous to our physical birth. However, scholars seem to favor reading "water and Spirit" together rather than separately. That is, in order to be born from above ("again" in verse 7), one must be born of both water and the Spirit: being born of water and the Spirit is a restatement of being born again. (See this comment on Jim F.'s Sunday school lesson.) This might also be echoing the way that the Spirit of God is described as brooding on the water in the creation account(s).

• John 3:6: Flesh is flesh. This may just mean "don't set your heart on the world," or this may refer to genealogical superiority as expressed in Matt 3:9 and Luke 3:8. (See also the cross-references in the questions above.)

• John 3:8: Spirit and wind. The word-play between "spirit" and "wind" (see question above) also seems to be used in Eccl 11:4ff, Isa 44:3-4, and Ezek 37:1-14. The passage in Ecclesiastes seems to emphasize the necessity of faith in the face of uncertainty: a farmer who waits for the perfect moment to plant so the wind won't blow away the seed, may never plant the seed because he is always waiting for the perfect moment!

The wind-spirit word play here may be emphasizing the unpredictability of the Spirit, the idea that no matter how much we study and think and plan, if we are truly to be born again, we must be responsive in the very moment the Spirit calls us, to whatever it calls us to do, no matter how absurd that call may be (e.g. to sacrifice our favorite son like Abraham, or to cut off someone’s head like Nephi, etc.). This seems to complement nicely Paul’s phrase “the law/letter killeth, but the Spirit giveth life” in 2 Cor 3:6. There may also be significance to the fact that the Spirit is heard and not seen, since looking for signs is usually set in contrast to those who hearken to the Spirit and exercise faith (see, for example, Alma 32:17ff). Also, this may be an oblique reference to the way in which Elijah and Melchizekek seem to appear and disappear whenever and wherever they want.

• John 3:13: Interpretational gloss? See comments 8-9 on Jim F.'s Sunday school post regarding the possibility of this being an interpretational gloss.

• John 3:16, 18: Only begotten. The Greek word, monogenes, translated as "only begotten" in verses 16 and 18 is used to refer to Christ in the New Testament only in the Gospel of John. Elsewhere in the New Testament, as in Luke 8:42, monogenes is used to refer to an only son or daughter. The Greek word carries a strong connotation of uniqueness, and modern translations often used often use "unique son" or "one and only son" in translating these verses. However, the phrase "only begotten son" captures a sense of the Greek that is missing in some of the modern translations. The word monogenes can stand alone, as it does in John 1:14, to mean an only child. By using both monogenes and huios (translated as "son"), John is using redundancy to place an emphasis on the sonship of Jesus. Thus it may be safe to assume that when "only begotten son" is used in modern revelation (often written in an English style patterned after the King James Version) that there is an emphasis on Jesus being the son of God in both a unique and a real sense.

• John 3:25-30: The bridegroom. Regarding Christ as the bridegroom, see the discussion of the bride and bridegroom and the marriage supper of the Lamb in connection with Matt 25:1-13 (Parable of the Ten Virgins).

Unanswered questions

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• John 2:24-25. What do these two verses mean? It seems to have to do with God knowing the hearts of men, but beyond that, I'm not sure what is really meant.

Prompts for life application

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Prompts for further study

This section is for prompts that invite us to think about a passage more deeply or in a new way. These are not necessarily questions that beg for answers, but rather prompts along the lines of "Have you ever thought about ..." Prompts are most helpful when they are developed individually, thoughtfully, and with enough background information to clearly indicate a particular direction for further study or thought. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:29. What is the "sin of the world"?

• John 1:47. In verse 1:47 it sounds like GUILE is a negative thing which Nathanael was free of, and yet in verse 46 it sounds like Nathanael was critical of the town of Nazareth and anybody who came from there. Still, in Alma 18:23, it sounds like Ammon's catching Lamoni "with guile" is a bad thing, yet he's doing a good thing in teaching him the gospel. How is GUILE being using here as it applies to Nathanael?

• John 2:6. What was the water set aside for? Why would the author include this detail?

• John 2:10. How do the governor’s (i.e. master of ceremonies) words play into the symbolism in verse 6?

• John 2:11. The author states that this was the beginning of the miracles that Jesus performed. (Note: he does not say that it was the beginning of Jesus’ ministry, which, of course, had already begun: Jesus had been baptizing.) How is this an appropriate way and occasion to begin his miracles? Note: Jesus expounds on this theme in Luke 4:26.

• John 2:14. Why were there merchants selling animals and changing money in the temple?

• John 2:19. What is significant about Jesus’ comparison of the temple to his body? How is Jesus’ body like the temple in Jerusalem? (See also verse 21.)

• John 3:1. What do we know about Nicodemus? How does this affect the way we read this story?

• John 3:2: By night. Why might Nicodemus have come to Jesus by night? Is Jesus doing something during the day that might have made it easier for Nicodemus to come at night? Is Nicodemus doing something during the day that might have made it easier for him to come at night? Might he have been trying to protect himself? Might he have been trying to protect Jesus? Is there any symbolic significance to the fact that Nicodemus came to Jesus out of the night. (Think about other ways that John uses the night in his gospel.)

• John 3:2: Rabbi. Why does Nicodemus call Jesus “Rabbi”? The word “rabbi” is a transliteration of a Hebrew term meaning “great.” In Jesus’ time it was used as a term of respect and it was primarily applied to the scribes—those who taught from and interpreted the scriptures—by their followers. Thus, “rabbi” was a term of respect that one used for one’s teacher. What is Nicodemus saying by calling Jesus a teacher? Why does Nicodemus us the plural, “we,” rather than the singular, “I”?

• John 3:2: Miracles. How does Nicodemus claim to know that Jesus has come from God? Do miracles prove that the person who works them has a divine origin? Is it relevant that, during the tempation in the desert, Jesus refused to work miracles as a proof of his divinity and power? Does Nicodemus’s confession help us understand him any better than we might without it?

• John 3:2: From God. What does Nicodemus mean when he says that Jesus has come from God? How does Jesus give him a different understanding of what it means to come from God?

• John 3:3: Jesus's response. How do you explain the disconnect between Nicodemus’s greeting in verse 2 and Jesus’ response in this verse? Is he rebuking Nicodemus for misunderstanding Christ’s mission, admiring Christ’s miracles but not seeing that he himself must be born again? Or, is Jesus responding to an unuttered question in Nicodemus’s heart?

• John 3:3: Verily, verily. Why does Jesus begin what he says with “verily, verily,” or—literally “amen, amen”? The word “amen” is used by both individuals and the community as a whole in the Old Testament, and it is used to confirm the acceptance of a task given to human beings by God (e.g., 1 Kgs 1:36), to confirm the application of a divine curse (e.g., Num 5:22; Deut 27:15ff.; Jer 11:5; and Neh 5:13), and to verify the praise of God (e.g., 1 Chr 16:36 and Neh 8:6). Thus “amen” means that which is sure and valid (Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, 1:335).

• John 3:3: Again. The Greek word translated “again” could have been translated “from above.” It is an ambiguous word. How does that ambiguity effect the conversation that follows?

• John 3:3: Kingdom. The Greek word translated “see” could also be translated “know.” As in Matt 3:2, the word translated “kingdom” could also be translated “reign.” How do we know the reign of God? Must we wait for death or the Second Coming? What are the types and shadows on this earth of that reign? What does Jesus tell us must happen for us to know the reign of God?

• John 3:3: Seeing. Nicodemus has seen Christ’s miracles (verse 2), but he has not seen the Kingdom of God (verse 3). What does that teach us?

• John 3:4: Nicodemus's misunderstanding. How does Nicodemus misunderstand what Jesus has said to him? What does the sheer grotesqueness of his Nicodemus’s interpretation of Jesus’ remark tell us about Nicodemus?

• John 3:4: Nicodemus's birth. Did Nicodemus believe that his first birth had conveyed spiritual advantages on him? What have the Pharisees said to John the Baptist about their birth? (Compare Matt 3:7, Luke 3:8, and the JST version of Luke 3:8.) Might that explain Nicodemus’s misunderstanding? If Nicodemus does believe that his first birth gave him a spiritual advantage over others, why would Jesus’ teaching have been shocking?

• John 3:5: Comparison to verse 3. Are the differences between what Jesus says here and what he said in verse 3 important? Does he say something new here?

• John 3:5: Born of water. We understand “born of the water” to refer to baptism. To what else might it refer? How would we decide between these possible meanings? Does the fact that what the King James version translates “again” in verse 3 could also have been translated “from above” help us decide? Do we need to decide between them? How is the teaching of this verse connected to John the Baptist’s teaching (Matt 3:11, Mark 1:8, and Luke 3:16)?

• John 3:5: Begotten? The word “born” can also be translated “begotten”: “Except a man be begotten of water and of the Spirit.” What does it mean to be begotten of the water? of the Spirit? Does Ps 2:7 shed any light on what Jesus is saying to Nicodemus?

• John 3:5: Cannot enter. “He cannot enter” translates a Greek phrase that means “he has no power to enter.” By what power do we enter the kingdom of God?

• John 3:5: Enter the kingdom of God. What does it mean to “enter the kingdom of God”? Is there more than one meaning? If you can think of more than one possible meaning, consider each meaning and ask yourself when, according to each meaning, one enters the kingdom or reign of God.

• John 3:6: How can we relate John 1:14 to what Jesus says here? What about John 6:63? Does Gen 2:7 have anything to do with what Jesus is teaching here? 2 Cor 4:18? (See also Job 10:9-12 and Job 33:4.)

• John 3:7-8: Thou vs. y'all. Why does Jesus use the plural of “you” rather than its singular in verse 7? (We don’t distinguish the two, but Greek does.) Why does he switch back to the singular “you” in verse 8? How are the ideas of these two verses connected?

• John 3:7-8: New lineage? We can understand the phrase “be born again” to mean “get a new lineage or genealogy.” What is the genealogy of one born of the Spirit?

• John 3:7-8: Spirit and wind. In both Aramaic (the everyday language of Palestine during Jesus’ time) and Greek (the language in which the gospel of John was written), the word translated “Spirit” can also be translated “breath” or “wind.” It can refer to the breath of God, given to Adam (Gen 2:7). What does it mean to say that the wind/Spirit/breath goes where it desires or wills? How does the desire of the Spirit differ from the desire of the flesh? How is the nature of the Spirit’s desire relevant to the rebirth that Jesus says must occur?

• John 3:7-8: Nicodemus's beliefs. What is Jesus teaching Nicodemus? How does that teaching compare to what Nicodemus, as a Pharisee, believed? How does that teaching apply to us? Compare what Jesus says in verse 8 with Eccl 11:5.

• John 3:9-10: How can these things be? When Nicodemus says “How can these things be?” he is asking “How can this happen?” or “How are these things possible?” What does he find astonishing?

• John 3:9-10: Teacher and teachee. The word translated “master” might be better translated “teacher.” It is a form of the same word translated “disciple.” The relation between the two words in Greek is comparable to “teacher” and “teachee” in English. Nicodemus has addressed Jesus as a teacher, taking the part of a disciple. Is Jesus doing the same thing here? If not, why does he point out that Nicodemus is a teacher? If he is, why and what does he mean? Where does Jesus suppose that Nicodemus would have learned the things that Jesus is teaching? Does Jesus believe that the teachings he has just rehearsed to Nicodemus are hidden or new? What criticism is Jesus making of Nicodemus by calling him a teacher and asking the question of verse 10? To what does “these things” refer?

• John 3:9-10: New birth. The idea that the metaphor of birth describes conversion seems to have been part of Jewish thinking at the time of Jesus, as these two sayings from first- or second-century Judaism show: “When someone brings a man under the wings of the Shekinah [i.e., converts him to Judaism], it is counted as though he had created and fashioned and formed him” (from Midrash on the Song of Solomon); also: “A proselyte just converted is like a child just born” (from the Babylonian Talmud; see Theological Dictionary of the New Testament 1:666.) Nicodemus would surely have known this. So what would he have found surprising in Jesus’ teaching? Is it the same thing that the Pharisees who went to John the Baptist found surprising (Matt 3:7, Luke 3:8, Luke 3:8)?

• John 3:9-10: Astonished at miracles. We can infer from verse 2 that Nicodemus marveled at—was astonished at—the miracles that Jesus performed (cf. Matt 8:27; Matt 9:8, 33; Matt 15:31; Matt 21:20; Mark 2:12; Luke 5:26, Luke 9:43), but Jesus said nothing about that. Here, however, he tells Nicodemus not to marvel: "don’t marvel at the teaching that you must be born again." Why shouldn’t he be astonished at that teaching? Does the story of the tempation of Christ (Matthew 4) perhaps help explain why Jesus has nothing to say about Nicodemus’s astonishment at the miracles but responds to his astonishment at the teaching about spiritual rebirth?

• John 3:16. "So loved the world" could be read as “loved the world to such a degree” or “loved the world in this way.” What difference does this make?

• John 3:21: Do works precede conversion? It seems this verse suggests that works precede conversion. That is, the phrase "he that doeth truth cometh to the light" suggests that those that come to the light are those that are already doing what is right (cf. verse 19 where "men loved darkness . . . because their deeds were evil"). Doesn't this suggest a circularity problem regarding conversion, that only those that do good will receive the light, and yet only by receiving the light can we do good (cf. Ether 4:12; see also a similar circularity problem in Alma 36:4-5 regarding Alma's unworthiness and his coming to a knowledge that he was unworthy to receive)?

• John 3:33. What does this mean "set to his seal that God is true"?

Resources

This section is for listing links and print resources, including those that are also cited elsewhere on this page. A short comment about the particular strengths of a resource can be helpful. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Notes

Footnotes are not required but are encouraged for factual assertions that average readers cannot easily evaluate for themselves (such as the date of King Solomon’s death or the nuanced definition of a Greek word). In contrast, insights rarely benefit from footnoting, and the focus of this page should always remain on the scriptures themselves rather than what someone has said about them. Links are actively encouraged on all sections of this page, and links to authoritative sources (such as Strong's Bible Concordance or the Joseph Smith Papers) are preferable to footnotes.

Previous page: Chapters 1b-12                      Next page: Chapter 4

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Summary

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Discussion

This section is for detailed discussion such as the meaning of a symbol, how a doctrinal point is developed throughout a passage, or insights that can be further developed in the future. Contributions may range from polished paragraphs down to a single bullet point. The focus, however, should always be on understanding the scriptural text consistent with LDS doctrine. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 2:13-17. Only in John does the “cleansing of the temple” occur at the beginning of Jesus’ public ministry: the other three Gospels place it as one of the last of Jesus’ actions before his arrest. This may be because A) there really was only one cleansing, which occurs later, but John mentions it earlier in order to use it as a symbol of Jesus’ entire mission, or B) there were two cleansings: an early one that John describes (but that Jesus “got away with”) and a later one that finally provoked action from the high priest, whose anger toward Jesus had been festering for some time.

• John 2:23: Passover. The best description of Passover is found in Exodus 12-13 and is celebrated in commemoration of the children of Israel exiting from Israel. It was also celebrated by Joshua and the people of Israel upon entering the land of Canaan (Joshua 5:10-12) connecting it to the arrival of Israel to the Promised Land. In Exodus Passover is portrayed as a family observance taking place primarily in the home. Immediately following the Passover was the seven day feast of unleavened bread and on the seventh day of that feast a pilgrimage to a holy place is made. The two occasions appear to have been separate events, though directly concurrent and related.

In Deuteronomy 16:1-8, Passover becomes an event requiring pilgrimage. "Thou mayest not sacrifice the passover within any of thy agates, which the LORD thy God giveth thee but at the place which the LORD thy God shall choose to place his name in, there thou shalt sacrifice the passover at even, at the going down of the sun, at the season that thou camest forth out of Egypt." (Deut 16:5-6) It is in this fashion that Hezekiah (2 Chr 30) and Josiah (2 Chr 35:1-19) performed the Passover, and the way in which it appears to have performed in the New Testament. It is this latter procedure which Christ follows in the New Testament and his apparent purpose for coming to Jerusalem during this time. During this time many of the people would have been gathered in Jerusalem and would have been a prime time for ministering.

Passover is an important event, but it is not, as believed by some, the most important event of the year. That distinction belongs more to the Day of Atonement (Yom Kippur) than to Passover. Even so, Passover plays a prominent role in NT scripture associated with the sacrifice of Christ himself. (see John 13:1; 19:14, 31, 42).

(see Eerdmans Dictionary of the Bible, ed. David Freedman, pg. 1013-1014).

• John 3:1: Nicodemus. The name “Nicodemus” means “conqueror” and it was a common name. We know little about Nicodemus. We know that he was a Pharisee because this verse tells that he was. We know that he was some kind of ruler, though we don’t know what kind, because this verse tell us that he was. Many have speculated that Nicodemus was a member of the Sanhedrin, but we have little evidence for that speculation and we know little about the Sanhedrin. If he was a member of the Sanhedrin, then he was a member of the ruling body of Jerusalem, a Pharisee, and a teacher (scribe). He was the height of what most people would have taken to be a good Jew, and he probably would be one of those referred to in John 12:42.

• John 3:1: Man. Notice the use of this term at the end of the previous chapter, John 2:25.

• John 3:5: Born. The Greek word gennao seems to have a connotation of conversion for Jews.

• John 3:5: Again. The Greek word anwyen can mean either "above" (particularly relating to God) or "again."

• John 3:5: Symbolism of water. Water here may refer to a number of scriptural symbolic metaphors: baptism; the fountain of life; the Red Sea and Jordan River, both of which have important symbolic meaning in the Old Testament; water which quenches thirst during a drought; water that causes things to grow; ritual cleansings (incl. Namaan's being healed by bathing in the River Jordan); the waters referred to in creation. See also Ezek 36. This may also be related to mikvah in Judaism.

• John 3:5: Water and Spirit. Water is an important element in physical birth, so the reference here may be to the birth of our spirit occurring in a way that is analogous to our physical birth. However, scholars seem to favor reading "water and Spirit" together rather than separately. That is, in order to be born from above ("again" in verse 7), one must be born of both water and the Spirit: being born of water and the Spirit is a restatement of being born again. (See this comment on Jim F.'s Sunday school lesson.) This might also be echoing the way that the Spirit of God is described as brooding on the water in the creation account(s).

• John 3:6: Flesh is flesh. This may just mean "don't set your heart on the world," or this may refer to genealogical superiority as expressed in Matt 3:9 and Luke 3:8. (See also the cross-references in the questions above.)

• John 3:8: Spirit and wind. The word-play between "spirit" and "wind" (see question above) also seems to be used in Eccl 11:4ff, Isa 44:3-4, and Ezek 37:1-14. The passage in Ecclesiastes seems to emphasize the necessity of faith in the face of uncertainty: a farmer who waits for the perfect moment to plant so the wind won't blow away the seed, may never plant the seed because he is always waiting for the perfect moment!

The wind-spirit word play here may be emphasizing the unpredictability of the Spirit, the idea that no matter how much we study and think and plan, if we are truly to be born again, we must be responsive in the very moment the Spirit calls us, to whatever it calls us to do, no matter how absurd that call may be (e.g. to sacrifice our favorite son like Abraham, or to cut off someone’s head like Nephi, etc.). This seems to complement nicely Paul’s phrase “the law/letter killeth, but the Spirit giveth life” in 2 Cor 3:6. There may also be significance to the fact that the Spirit is heard and not seen, since looking for signs is usually set in contrast to those who hearken to the Spirit and exercise faith (see, for example, Alma 32:17ff). Also, this may be an oblique reference to the way in which Elijah and Melchizekek seem to appear and disappear whenever and wherever they want.

• John 3:13: Interpretational gloss? See comments 8-9 on Jim F.'s Sunday school post regarding the possibility of this being an interpretational gloss.

• John 3:16, 18: Only begotten. The Greek word, monogenes, translated as "only begotten" in verses 16 and 18 is used to refer to Christ in the New Testament only in the Gospel of John. Elsewhere in the New Testament, as in Luke 8:42, monogenes is used to refer to an only son or daughter. The Greek word carries a strong connotation of uniqueness, and modern translations often used often use "unique son" or "one and only son" in translating these verses. However, the phrase "only begotten son" captures a sense of the Greek that is missing in some of the modern translations. The word monogenes can stand alone, as it does in John 1:14, to mean an only child. By using both monogenes and huios (translated as "son"), John is using redundancy to place an emphasis on the sonship of Jesus. Thus it may be safe to assume that when "only begotten son" is used in modern revelation (often written in an English style patterned after the King James Version) that there is an emphasis on Jesus being the son of God in both a unique and a real sense.

• John 3:25-30: The bridegroom. Regarding Christ as the bridegroom, see the discussion of the bride and bridegroom and the marriage supper of the Lamb in connection with Matt 25:1-13 (Parable of the Ten Virgins).

Unanswered questions

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• John 2:24-25. What do these two verses mean? It seems to have to do with God knowing the hearts of men, but beyond that, I'm not sure what is really meant.

Prompts for life application

This section is for prompts that suggest ways in which a passage can influence a person's life. Prompts may be appropriate either for private self reflection or for a class discussion. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

Prompts for further study

This section is for prompts that invite us to think about a passage more deeply or in a new way. These are not necessarily questions that beg for answers, but rather prompts along the lines of "Have you ever thought about ..." Prompts are most helpful when they are developed individually, thoughtfully, and with enough background information to clearly indicate a particular direction for further study or thought. Click the "edit" link to edit or add content to this section. →

• John 1:29. What is the "sin of the world"?

• John 1:47. In verse 1:47 it sounds like GUILE is a negative thing which Nathanael was free of, and yet in verse 46 it sounds like Nathanael was critical of the town of Nazareth and anybody who came from there. Still, in Alma 18:23, it sounds like Ammon's catching Lamoni "with guile" is a bad thing, yet he's doing a good thing in teaching him the gospel. How is GUILE being using here as it applies to Nathanael?

• John 2:6. What was the water set aside for? Why would the author include this detail?

• John 2:10. How do the governor’s (i.e. master of ceremonies) words play into the symbolism in verse 6?

• John 2:11. The author states that this was the beginning of the miracles that Jesus performed. (Note: he does not say that it was the beginning of Jesus’ ministry, which, of course, had already begun: Jesus had been baptizing.) How is this an appropriate way and occasion to begin his miracles? Note: Jesus expounds on this theme in Luke 4:26.

• John 2:14. Why were there merchants selling animals and changing money in the temple?

• John 2:19. What is significant about Jesus’ comparison of the temple to his body? How is Jesus’ body like the temple in Jerusalem? (See also verse 21.)

• John 3:1. What do we know about Nicodemus? How does this affect the way we read this story?

• John 3:2: By night. Why might Nicodemus have come to Jesus by night? Is Jesus doing something during the day that might have made it easier for Nicodemus to come at night? Is Nicodemus doing something during the day that might have made it easier for him to come at night? Might he have been trying to protect himself? Might he have been trying to protect Jesus? Is there any symbolic significance to the fact that Nicodemus came to Jesus out of the night. (Think about other ways that John uses the night in his gospel.)

• John 3:2: Rabbi. Why does Nicodemus call Jesus “Rabbi”? The word “rabbi” is a transliteration of a Hebrew term meaning “great.” In Jesus’ time it was used as a term of respect and it was primarily applied to the scribes—those who taught from and interpreted the scriptures—by their followers. Thus, “rabbi” was a term of respect that one used for one’s teacher. What is Nicodemus saying by calling Jesus a teacher? Why does Nicodemus us the plural, “we,” rather than the singular, “I”?

• John 3:2: Miracles. How does Nicodemus claim to know that Jesus has come from God? Do miracles prove that the person who works them has a divine origin? Is it relevant that, during the tempation in the desert, Jesus refused to work miracles as a proof of his divinity and power? Does Nicodemus’s confession help us understand him any better than we might without it?

• John 3:2: From God. What does Nicodemus mean when he says that Jesus has come from God? How does Jesus give him a different understanding of what it means to come from God?

• John 3:3: Jesus's response. How do you explain the disconnect between Nicodemus’s greeting in verse 2 and Jesus’ response in this verse? Is he rebuking Nicodemus for misunderstanding Christ’s mission, admiring Christ’s miracles but not seeing that he himself must be born again? Or, is Jesus responding to an unuttered question in Nicodemus’s heart?

• John 3:3: Verily, verily. Why does Jesus begin what he says with “verily, verily,” or—literally “amen, amen”? The word “amen” is used by both individuals and the community as a whole in the Old Testament, and it is used to confirm the acceptance of a task given to human beings by God (e.g., 1 Kgs 1:36), to confirm the application of a divine curse (e.g., Num 5:22; Deut 27:15ff.; Jer 11:5; and Neh 5:13), and to verify the praise of God (e.g., 1 Chr 16:36 and Neh 8:6). Thus “amen” means that which is sure and valid (Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, 1:335).

• John 3:3: Again. The Greek word translated “again” could have been translated “from above.” It is an ambiguous word. How does that ambiguity effect the conversation that follows?

• John 3:3: Kingdom. The Greek word translated “see” could also be translated “know.” As in Matt 3:2, the word translated “kingdom” could also be translated “reign.” How do we know the reign of God? Must we wait for death or the Second Coming? What are the types and shadows on this earth of that reign? What does Jesus tell us must happen for us to know the reign of God?

• John 3:3: Seeing. Nicodemus has seen Christ’s miracles (verse 2), but he has not seen the Kingdom of God (verse 3). What does that teach us?

• John 3:4: Nicodemus's misunderstanding. How does Nicodemus misunderstand what Jesus has said to him? What does the sheer grotesqueness of his Nicodemus’s interpretation of Jesus’ remark tell us about Nicodemus?

• John 3:4: Nicodemus's birth. Did Nicodemus believe that his first birth had conveyed spiritual advantages on him? What have the Pharisees said to John the Baptist about their birth? (Compare Matt 3:7, Luke 3:8, and the JST version of Luke 3:8.) Might that explain Nicodemus’s misunderstanding? If Nicodemus does believe that his first birth gave him a spiritual advantage over others, why would Jesus’ teaching have been shocking?

• John 3:5: Comparison to verse 3. Are the differences between what Jesus says here and what he said in verse 3 important? Does he say something new here?

• John 3:5: Born of water. We understand “born of the water” to refer to baptism. To what else might it refer? How would we decide between these possible meanings? Does the fact that what the King James version translates “again” in verse 3 could also have been translated “from above” help us decide? Do we need to decide between them? How is the teaching of this verse connected to John the Baptist’s teaching (Matt 3:11, Mark 1:8, and Luke 3:16)?

• John 3:5: Begotten? The word “born” can also be translated “begotten”: “Except a man be begotten of water and of the Spirit.” What does it mean to be begotten of the water? of the Spirit? Does Ps 2:7 shed any light on what Jesus is saying to Nicodemus?

• John 3:5: Cannot enter. “He cannot enter” translates a Greek phrase that means “he has no power to enter.” By what power do we enter the kingdom of God?

• John 3:5: Enter the kingdom of God. What does it mean to “enter the kingdom of God”? Is there more than one meaning? If you can think of more than one possible meaning, consider each meaning and ask yourself when, according to each meaning, one enters the kingdom or reign of God.

• John 3:6: How can we relate John 1:14 to what Jesus says here? What about John 6:63? Does Gen 2:7 have anything to do with what Jesus is teaching here? 2 Cor 4:18? (See also Job 10:9-12 and Job 33:4.)

• John 3:7-8: Thou vs. y'all. Why does Jesus use the plural of “you” rather than its singular in verse 7? (We don’t distinguish the two, but Greek does.) Why does he switch back to the singular “you” in verse 8? How are the ideas of these two verses connected?

• John 3:7-8: New lineage? We can understand the phrase “be born again” to mean “get a new lineage or genealogy.” What is the genealogy of one born of the Spirit?

• John 3:7-8: Spirit and wind. In both Aramaic (the everyday language of Palestine during Jesus’ time) and Greek (the language in which the gospel of John was written), the word translated “Spirit” can also be translated “breath” or “wind.” It can refer to the breath of God, given to Adam (Gen 2:7). What does it mean to say that the wind/Spirit/breath goes where it desires or wills? How does the desire of the Spirit differ from the desire of the flesh? How is the nature of the Spirit’s desire relevant to the rebirth that Jesus says must occur?

• John 3:7-8: Nicodemus's beliefs. What is Jesus teaching Nicodemus? How does that teaching compare to what Nicodemus, as a Pharisee, believed? How does that teaching apply to us? Compare what Jesus says in verse 8 with Eccl 11:5.

• John 3:9-10: How can these things be? When Nicodemus says “How can these things be?” he is asking “How can this happen?” or “How are these things possible?” What does he find astonishing?

• John 3:9-10: Teacher and teachee. The word translated “master” might be better translated “teacher.” It is a form of the same word translated “disciple.” The relation between the two words in Greek is comparable to “teacher” and “teachee” in English. Nicodemus has addressed Jesus as a teacher, taking the part of a disciple. Is Jesus doing the same thing here? If not, why does he point out that Nicodemus is a teacher? If he is, why and what does he mean? Where does Jesus suppose that Nicodemus would have learned the things that Jesus is teaching? Does Jesus believe that the teachings he has just rehearsed to Nicodemus are hidden or new? What criticism is Jesus making of Nicodemus by calling him a teacher and asking the question of verse 10? To what does “these things” refer?

• John 3:9-10: New birth. The idea that the metaphor of birth describes conversion seems to have been part of Jewish thinking at the time of Jesus, as these two sayings from first- or second-century Judaism show: “When someone brings a man under the wings of the Shekinah [i.e., converts him to Judaism], it is counted as though he had created and fashioned and formed him” (from Midrash on the Song of Solomon); also: “A proselyte just converted is like a child just born” (from the Babylonian Talmud; see Theological Dictionary of the New Testament 1:666.) Nicodemus would surely have known this. So what would he have found surprising in Jesus’ teaching? Is it the same thing that the Pharisees who went to John the Baptist found surprising (Matt 3:7, Luke 3:8, Luke 3:8)?

• John 3:9-10: Astonished at miracles. We can infer from verse 2 that Nicodemus marveled at—was astonished at—the miracles that Jesus performed (cf. Matt 8:27; Matt 9:8, 33; Matt 15:31; Matt 21:20; Mark 2:12; Luke 5:26, Luke 9:43), but Jesus said nothing about that. Here, however, he tells Nicodemus not to marvel: "don’t marvel at the teaching that you must be born again." Why shouldn’t he be astonished at that teaching? Does the story of the tempation of Christ (Matthew 4) perhaps help explain why Jesus has nothing to say about Nicodemus’s astonishment at the miracles but responds to his astonishment at the teaching about spiritual rebirth?

• John 3:16. "So loved the world" could be read as “loved the world to such a degree” or “loved the world in this way.” What difference does this make?

• John 3:21: Do works precede conversion? It seems this verse suggests that works precede conversion. That is, the phrase "he that doeth truth cometh to the light" suggests that those that come to the light are those that are already doing what is right (cf. verse 19 where "men loved darkness . . . because their deeds were evil"). Doesn't this suggest a circularity problem regarding conversion, that only those that do good will receive the light, and yet only by receiving the light can we do good (cf. Ether 4:12; see also a similar circularity problem in Alma 36:4-5 regarding Alma's unworthiness and his coming to a knowledge that he was unworthy to receive)?

• John 3:33. What does this mean "set to his seal that God is true"?

Resources

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Notes

Footnotes are not required but are encouraged for factual assertions that average readers cannot easily evaluate for themselves (such as the date of King Solomon’s death or the nuanced definition of a Greek word). In contrast, insights rarely benefit from footnoting, and the focus of this page should always remain on the scriptures themselves rather than what someone has said about them. Links are actively encouraged on all sections of this page, and links to authoritative sources (such as Strong's Bible Concordance or the Joseph Smith Papers) are preferable to footnotes.

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