Isa 1:1-5
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The Old Testament > Isaiah > Chapter 1
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Questions
- Verse 1: Should the possibility that this vision refers specifically to the ancient kingdom of Judah change how we approach this chapter? Should it change how we approach the entire book of Isaiah?
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Lexical notes
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Verse 1
- "vision"
The English word vision as chosen by the KJV translators is particularly apt. The Hebrew word (from the Masoretic OT Hebrew text) is חָזן "chäzôn" which literally means a "sight", "dream", "revelation", or "oracle". The Greek word (from the Septuagint OT) '΄ορασις "hórasis" also carries the same meaning. Both the Hebrew and Greek Old Testaments are in agreement that Isaiah was having a revelatory experience via sight, dream, or vision. It also underscores the translation acumen of the KJV translators.
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Exegesis
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Verse 1
- This chapter is generally considered a superscription for the entire book of Isaiah. As such, there is a question as to whether the vision in this verse refers only to this chapter or to the book as a whole.
- The argument for understanding this as a reference to only this chapter relies on the self-contained nature of this chapter as a whole prophecy and the absence of this term in describing entire prophetic books elsewhere. The exception is Obad 1:1, which is similarly introduced, but which is only a chapter long. Elsewhere, this term introduces specific visions Hab 1:1), without seemingly referring to the entire book.
- The argument for understanding this as a reference to only this chapter relies on the chronological information listed here, which seems to cover all of Isaiah's ministry and, therefore, possibly refers to the entire book of Isaiah (or, at least, chapter 1-39). Although the exact dates of the reigns of these kings remains debated, it is clear that this verse places Isaiah in the latter half of the 8th century BCE.
- The reason why this argument is important is because, with Isaiah, there is always the problem of scope. In this verse, Isaiah notes that this vision is regarding Judah (meaning the southern kingdom of Judah) and its capital, Jerusalem. If this verse is understood as referring to the entire book of Isaiah, arguments that he is prophesying regarding the whole House of Israel (especially those who come from the northern kingdom of Israel) may be harder to make. That said, it still would not be impossible to make such an argument.
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