Doctrine & Covenants 132 All

Doctrine & Covenants > Section 132

Questions

• Does the "as also" of verse 1 suggest that Joseph only inquired concerning Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, and that the Lord is including, for His own purposes, some information on Moses, David, and Solomon? If so, what is the significance of this? If not, why does the Lord break down the list into two groups, split by the "as also"?
• Why would the Lord begin his answer—even before He announces that He is going to answer—with the phrase "Behold, and lo, I am the Lord thy God"?
• Verses 4-5 seem, perhaps, to use "covenant" and "law" interchangeably. Is this a good reading? Is there any way to read them as separate or distinct here? What would it mean to "abide" either the covenant or the law? Is it significant that verse 5 makes law a question of receiving a blessing, while no such connection is made with the covenant? Might one read "conditions" as making a difference between covenant and law?

Lexical notes

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Exegesis

Verse 1

This first verse of this most important revelation is very commonly cited as the primary evidence that, as the section heading says, "the doctrines and principles involved in this revelation had been known by the Prophet since 1831." Several of those who were close to the Prophet claimed that he had spoken as early as 1831 or 1832 about polygamy as a "privilege," especially pertaining, according to some accounts, to the redemption of the Lamanites (William W. Phelps explained this in an 1861 letter to Brigham Young, making reference to an unpublished revelation of July 17, 1831, which says, "For it is my will that in time, ye should take unto you wives of the Lamanites and Nephites that their posterity may become white, delightsome and just, for even now their females are more virtuous than the gentiles"; Phelps added, "I asked brother Joseph, privately, how 'we,' that were mentioned in the revelation could take wives of the 'natives' as we were all married men?" to which Joseph apparently replied, "In the same manner that Abraham took Hagar and Keturah; and Jacob took Rachel, Bilhah and Zilpha, by Revelation"). Many scholars have connected these details up with the specifically patriarchal concern of this first verse, which seems to suggest that the question Joseph apparently asked the Lord had come up in the process of the New Translation of the Bible. Joseph was engaged in the translation of the text of Genesis up through March 7, 1831, after which he was commanded to begin translating the New Testament. Since this commandment cut short his work on the Old Testament for a time, it is important to note that he stopped precisely at the end of the story of Abraham, about whom he had apparently asked.

If all of these details are correctly interpreted, then it appears that at least portions of this revelation ought to be read with an eye to the revelations and historical developments of 1831. At the very time Joseph was translating the Abraham story from Genesis, for example, he received section 42 of the Doctrine and Covenants, the "law of the Church," that is, the law of consecration. This may suggest that one read the references to "law" in the first verses of this revelation in terms of that particular law (other sections of the Doctrine and Covenants certainly connect the law of consecration with the ordinance of sealing: see especially section 85). Also important is the Lamanite concern of 1831, which seems to have been, according to the above details, somehow connected with this revelation (does the wording of this first verse suggest that Joseph only asked about Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, and if so, does that imply that his concern was primarily covenantal, primarily a question of the place of Israel, that is, the Lamanites?). Certainly relevant is the 1831 focus on Zion (quite a different spirit from the 1843 focus of the saints in Nauvoo): what has celestial marriage to do with the land of Zion (again, cf. D&C 85)? At the very least, these comments suggest that one carefully consider the historical background of this revelation: what is at work behind the scenes?

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Doctrine & Covenants > Section 132

Questions

• In verse 6, both "law" and "covenant" are used, but perhaps in a way that is somewhat different from the preceding verses. Are they being used interchangeably here? Might one read the grammar here as suggesting that the law pertains to the new and everlasting covenant? If verse 5 speaks of laws being instituted, is it significant here that the covenant "was instituted"? Could there be several sense of the word "covenant" at play here and elsewhere?
• Verse 7 also speaks of both "law" and "covenants." Here, however, it is quite clear that there is some kind of difference between them, since "covenants" are to be made, entered into, and sealed, in order to fulfill "the conditions of this law." What kind of distinction seems to be implicit here, then, between law and covenant? Can the distinction implied here be read back into the preceding four verses (3-6)? Does the list offered here ("covenants, contracts, bonds, etc.") help one think about the nature of covenant over against law? How are law and covenant related through the idea (or ordinance) of sealing?

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Lexical notes

Verse 11

• "Before the world was." This exact phrase occurs 9 times in LDS scripture, according to an lds.org search. Of particular interest are the following: (1) In D&C 76:13 "the things of God" existed "before the world was." These things are what the Spirit reveals by opening the eyes of Joseph Smith and Sidney Rigdon. These things are also things that "were ordained of the the Father, through his only Begotten Son, who was in the Bosom of the Father, even from the beginning." (2) In D&C 93:7, John's testimony from John 1 is elaborated upon with the description of Jesus Christ existing, as the word, "before the world was. (3) In D&C 128:22, the redemption of the dead from prison, by baptism for the dead, is described as being ordained "before the world was." These phrases suggest a rhetorical connection between the sealing power of God's word and/or law (cf. verse 12) and the purpose of what is typically called the pre-mortal plan of salvation whereby Christ would redeem mankind. What is seems somewhat incongruent is that this fore-sightful plan was established to redeem mankind from a fall that had not yet occurred. That is, God's word, in the form of a commandment, seems to be what first effected the Fall, through Adam and, subsequently, what effect-ed/s redemption, through Christ. This "before the world was" phrasing seems to set up a kind of temporal tension with the "new" aspect of the covenant that is being revealed. That is, if the law existed "before the world was," in what sense is it new?

Verse 13

• "Thrown down." The phrase "throw down" or "thrown down" occurs 29 times in LDS scripture, according to an lds.org search. The context is usually in terms of throwing down the altars of false or rival gods. One way to read this might verse, esp. in light of God's word being mentioned, is in terms of humbling oneself, or allowing oneself to be humbled "because of the word" (Alma 32:14), as opposed to being forced to be humble. Also, the typical "thrown down" context of false altars seems a rich allusion to the marriage altar in the temple where couples enter into a new and everlasting covenant with God.

Exegesis

Verses 11-12

These two verses return to a theme that comes up in the first verses of this revelation: that law is somehow connected with what happened before the world was (though covenant is never explicitly stated to be pre-mortal). In verse 11, the Lord asks a rhetorical question, which seems to suggest that the reader of the revelation (or the hearer: Joseph Smith) should recognize the logical answer: the Lord would not do such a thing as appoint something except by law, and that as ordained before the world was.

But whatever this implies is then clarified, or at least qualified: the law is "by me [Christ] or by my word." The weight of this phrase perhaps goes too easily unfelt. What is at work in this curious little phrase?

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Doctrine & Covenants > Section 132

Questions

Verse 19

• What does it mean to "pass by the angels" to achieve exaltation?

• How is exaltation "sealed upon [our] heads"?

• How is the "continuation of the seeds" an eternal glory?

• What does it mean that the sealing occurs "by him who is anointed, unto who I have appointed this power and the keys of the priesthood..."? Besides the Holy Spirit of promise, does this mean that a priesthood holder must seal the calling and election of the couple? If so, is this the Second Anointing or is that a separate ordinance?

Lexical notes

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Exegesis

Verse 19

Note the use of the word "seal" in verse 19. Through the sealing ordinances of the temple, exaltation is sealed upon our heads. This is brought to complete fulfillment after individuals have proved faithful, and had their calling and election sealed upon their heads by the power of the holy priesthood. "The more sure word of prophecy means a man's knowing that he is sealed up unto eternal life, by revelation and the spirit of prophecy, through the power of the Holy Priesthood" (D&C 131:5).

A "fullness and a continuation of the seeds forever and ever" will be the glory given to those who are exalted. This glory is previously referenced as "my [God's] glory." Since God's glory is to bring to pass the immortality and eternal life of his children (Moses 1:39), it follows that the exalted who become gods and receive God's glory will be involved in bringing to pass the immortality and eternal life of their children, and will have the same relationship with their children that our Heavenly Father has with us.

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Verses 19-20

• See a Joseph Fielding Smith quotation on "from everlasting to everlasting" (v 20) and a quote from Brigham Young on the temple related to verse 19 here.

Doctrine & Covenants > Section 132

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Doctrine & Covenants > Section 132

Questions

Verse 37

• What is the difference between a wife and a concubine?

Verse 38

• The Lord indicates that righteous men have taken plural wives "from the beginning of creation"--does that mean that Adam, who was at the "beginning of creation," had more than one wife?

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Doctrine & Covenants > Section 132

Questions

Verse 51

• "Partake not of that which I commanded you to offer unto her." What is this phrase referring to?

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Doctrine & Covenants > Section 132

Questions

Verse 60

• Why will the Lord justify Joseph?
• Is there a difference between the meaning of transgression in this verse and sin in verse 59?
• If the Prophet Joseph was to do a "sacrifice" for his transgressions, are we to understand then that Joseph transgressed in some particular way?
• What is the connection betweens a transgression and sacrifice?
• What sacrifice was Joseph required to make?

Lexical notes

Verse 59

• This verse gives us some explication of the nature of a sin, apparently in contrast to a transgression.

Exegesis

Verse 60

• There is an apparent connection between this verse and the story of the fall of Adam. Both involve a transgression that results in a need to sacrifice. Also in both cases, the exact nature of the transgression is unspecified.

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Doctrine & Covenants > Section 132

Questions

Verse 65

• What is the Law of Sarah?

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